Veda Skills Logical Reasoning Unit 19: Practice Papers and Mock Tests

Practice Papers and Mock Tests is Unit 19 of Veda Skills Logical Reasoning. This page has the complete chapter notes across 2 topics, 144 practice MCQs with answers and explanations, 10 important short and long questions and 28 flashcards, written for SSC, Bank, Railway and placement exams and free to read.
  • 2 topics
  • 144 MCQs
  • 8 short answers
  • 2 long answers
  • 28 flashcards
  • 2 games
  • ~100 min read
  • English

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Exam Strategy for the Reasoning Section

Plan a reasoning section like a topper: budget the seconds, attack in three rounds (one-liners, draw-and-solve, one puzzle set), choose the puzzle set that gives the most questions per minute, strike out options before solving, and avoid the seven common traps.

What you will be able to do

  • I can work out the time budget per question for any section.
  • I can sort reasoning questions into three rounds and attempt them in that order.
  • I can choose the best puzzle set by questions per minute.
  • I can strike out options by gender, size, first letter and contradiction.
  • I can decide when a guess is worth it under negative marking.

Key points

  • Time per question = total seconds ÷ number of questions; 25 questions in 20 minutes is 48 seconds each.

  • Bank prelims usually give about 35 reasoning questions in 20 minutes, close to 34 seconds each; always check your own exam notice.

  • Round 1: one-liners (series, analogy, coding, alphabet, inequalities). Round 2: draw-and-solve (relations, directions, syllogism). Round 3: one puzzle set.

  • Choose the puzzle set with the most questions per minute: fewer people, one direction of facing, one variable, definite clues.

  • If you cannot fix two people of a puzzle in two minutes, leave the set and move on.

  • Strike out options first: the wrong gender, a smaller next term in a rising series, a code whose first letter disagrees.

  • A conclusion that contradicts a statement never follows; "either-or" is right only for a complementary pair.

  • Under −0.25 marking a blind guess among four gains on average only 0.0625 marks; strike out two options before guessing.

  • Total in a row = L + R − 1; persons between two people exclude both of them.

Full explanation

Twenty minutes, twenty-five questions

A calm exam hall in morning light, rows of desks with answer sheets, a student taking a deep breath before starting.

Ritu knew every chapter of reasoning. In her first full mock she opened with a circular seating puzzle of eight people, spent seven minutes on it, and still had six one-liners untouched when the time ended. She scored 14 out of 25.

The questions were not too hard. The order was wrong. This topic is about the order.

Know your clock

Start every paper by finding your budget: total seconds ÷ number of questions.

  • Mocks in this kit: 25 questions in 1200 seconds, so 48 seconds each.
  • Bank prelims: about 35 reasoning questions in 20 minutes, so about 34 seconds each.
  • SSC CGL Tier 1: 100 questions in 60 minutes for four parts, so 36 seconds each on average.

The budget is an average. A series question takes 20 seconds; a puzzle question takes 80. Patterns change, so check the notice of your own exam.

A plan for every mock

The table splits a 25-question mock by area. The planned times add up to 1030 seconds, which leaves 170 seconds to recheck marked answers.

Table: Series, 3 questions, 30 seconds each, round 1; Analogy, odd one out, 3 questions, 30 seconds each, round 1; Coding-decoding, 2 questions, 40 seconds each, round 1; Alphabet, 1 question, 30 seconds each, round 1; Ranking, 1 question, 30 seconds each, round 1; Inequalities, 2 questions, 25 seconds each, round 1; Non-verbal, 2 questions, 35 seconds each, round 1; Blood relations, 2 questions, 40 seconds each, round 2; Directions, 2 questions, 45 seconds each, round 2; Syllogism, 2 questions, 45 seconds each, round 2; Venn or sufficiency, 1 question, 45 seconds each, round 2; Clock or calendar, 1 question, 45 seconds each, round 2; Puzzle set, 3 questions, 80 seconds each, round 3.

Three rounds

Read the paper once from top to bottom and sort as you go.

  • Round 1, one-liners (14 questions): answer at sight.
  • Round 2, draw-and-solve (8 questions): a small tree, path or Venn diagram.
  • Round 3, one puzzle set (3 questions): only after rounds 1 and 2.

If a one-liner takes more than a minute, mark it and move on.

Four cards: round 1 one-liners, round 2 draw-and-solve, round 3 the best puzzle set, and last review and skip.

Bar chart of seconds: round 1 440, round 2 350, round 3 240, review 170; total 1200 seconds.

Which puzzle set first?

A bank paper may offer three or four sets. You need one or two, so choose.

  • Fewer people and one variable (only seats, or only floors) are faster.
  • A row facing one way is faster than a circle with mixed facing.
  • Definite clues ("Asha sits third to the right of Om") fix seats; negative clues ("Om does not sit at an end") only remove cases.

Then compare questions per minute = questions ÷ minutes needed.

Table of puzzle sets: set A, 8 people, circle, mixed facing, 5 questions, 8 minutes; set B, 6 people, row, all face north, 5 questions, 4 minutes; set C, 7 floors, 2 attributes, 5 questions, 6 minutes.

Worked example: choosing the set

In the table, set A gives 5 questions in 8 minutes, $5 \div 8=0.625$ per minute. Set B gives $5 \div 4=1.25$ per minute. Set C gives $5 \div 6\approx 0.83$ per minute.

Take set B first. If time is left, take set C. Leave set A: eight people in a circle with mixed facing is the slowest kind.

Strike out before you solve

You need the right option, not always the full working. One quick check often removes two options.

Four cards: gender check, size check for series, first-letter check for codes, and contradiction check for conclusions.

Worked example: elimination

"Pointing to Kavita, Mohan said, she is my father's only son's daughter." Options: uncle, daughter, sister, nephew.

Kavita is a woman, so "uncle" and "nephew" go at once. My father's only son is Mohan himself, so Kavita is his daughter. Two options were gone in two seconds.

Seven traps

Most lost marks in reasoning are not hard questions. They are the same few slips, again and again.

Table of traps: Facing south: right is west, not east; Rank total: L + R − 1, not L + R; Persons between: do not count the two named; Mirror vs water: mirror flips left-right; Clock angle: 5.5M, not 6M; Century year: leap only if divisible by 400; Either-or: only for a complementary pair.

Negative marking

With $+1$ for right and $-0.25$ for wrong, the expected gain of a guess among $n$ options is $\frac{1}{n}-0.25\times\frac{n-1}{n}$.

  • No option struck out ($n=4$): $0.25-0.1875=0.0625$, almost nothing.
  • Two struck out ($n=2$): $0.5-0.125=0.375$, worth it.

So never guess blind; strike out two options first, then guess.

Ritu's next mock

In her next mock Ritu finished the one-liners in seven minutes, the draw-and-solve questions in six, and then chose the six-person row puzzle over the circle. She left two questions she could not narrow down. Her score went from 14 to 21, with the same knowledge and a better order.

Mind map of section strategy: time, order, puzzle sets, options, traps and marks.

Concepts and terms

Time budget

Total seconds divided by the number of questions. It is an average: one-liners take less, puzzle sets take more.

Three rounds

Collect the quick marks first, then the questions that need a small drawing, and only then one puzzle set.

Questions per minute

For a puzzle set, divide the number of questions by the minutes it will take. Attempt the set with the highest value.

Expected gain of a guess

With n options left: right marks ÷ n minus wrong marks × (n − 1) ÷ n. Striking out options raises it quickly.

Did you know

In many bank prelims the cut-off for reasoning is crossed by solving the one-liners and one good puzzle set accurately; attempting every set is rarely needed.

Memory tricks

Order of attack — Line, Draw, Set — One-liners first, then draw-and-solve, then one puzzle set.

Choosing a set — Few, Straight, Sure — Few people, a straight row facing one way, sure (definite) clues.

Practice MCQs with answers (48)

Q1 A reasoning section has 25 questions to be answered in 20 minutes. What is the average time per question in seconds? beginner
  • A 54
  • B 48
  • C 80
  • D 75
Show answer
Answer: 48
Why:

20 minutes = 1200 seconds; 1200 ÷ 25 = 48.

Q2 A bank prelims reasoning section has 35 questions to be answered in 20 minutes. About how many seconds is the average time per question? beginner
  • A 40
  • B 57
  • C 34
  • D 105
Show answer
Answer: 34
Why:

20 minutes = 1200 seconds; 1200 ÷ 35 = 34.3, about 34 seconds.

Q3 A reasoning section has 30 questions to be answered in 15 minutes. What is the average time per question in seconds? intermediate
  • A 50
  • B 120
  • C 36
  • D 30
Show answer
Answer: 30
Why:

15 minutes = 900 seconds; 900 ÷ 30 = 30.

Q4 A railway reasoning section has 40 questions to be answered in 30 minutes. What is the average time per question in seconds? intermediate
  • A 45
  • B 51
  • C 75
  • D 80
Show answer
Answer: 45
Why:

30 minutes = 1800 seconds; 1800 ÷ 40 = 45.

Q5 A reasoning section has 50 questions to be answered in 40 minutes. What is the average time per question in seconds? advanced
  • A 75
  • B 48
  • C 54
  • D 80
Show answer
Answer: 48
Why:

40 minutes = 2400 seconds; 2400 ÷ 50 = 48.

Q6 A placement aptitude round has 45 questions to be answered in 25 minutes. About how many seconds is the average time per question? advanced
  • A 39
  • B 56
  • C 33
  • D 108
Show answer
Answer: 33
Why:

25 minutes = 1500 seconds; 1500 ÷ 45 = 33.3, about 33 seconds.

Q7 In a test with +1 for a right answer and −0.25 for a wrong one, Rahul attempts 20 questions and 17 are right. What is his score? beginner
  • A 12
  • B 16
  • C 17
  • D 16.25
Show answer
Answer: 16.25
Why:

Wrong answers = 20 − 17 = 3. Score = 17 × 1 − 3 × 0.25 = 16.25.

Q8 In a test with +1 for a right answer and −0.25 for a wrong one, Rahul attempts 30 questions and 24 are right. What is his score? beginner
  • A 22.5
  • B 22.25
  • C 24
  • D 16.5
Show answer
Answer: 22.5
Why:

Wrong answers = 30 − 24 = 6. Score = 24 × 1 − 6 × 0.25 = 22.5.

Q9 In a test with +2 for a right answer and −0.5 for a wrong one, Rahul attempts 22 questions and 18 are right. What is his score? intermediate
  • A 33.5
  • B 34
  • C 36
  • D 25
Show answer
Answer: 34
Why:

Wrong answers = 22 − 18 = 4. Score = 18 × 2 − 4 × 0.5 = 34.

Q10 In a test with +2 for a right answer and −0.5 for a wrong one, Rahul attempts 28 questions and 21 are right. What is his score? intermediate
  • A 38
  • B 42
  • C 38.5
  • D 28
Show answer
Answer: 38.5
Why:

Wrong answers = 28 − 21 = 7. Score = 21 × 2 − 7 × 0.5 = 38.5.

Q11 In a test with +1 for a right answer and −0.25 for a wrong one, Rahul attempts 32 questions and 26 are right. What is his score? advanced
  • A 24.25
  • B 26
  • C 18
  • D 24.5
Show answer
Answer: 24.5
Why:

Wrong answers = 32 − 26 = 6. Score = 26 × 1 − 6 × 0.25 = 24.5.

Q12 Marking is +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong. Neha attempts all 25 questions of a section. At least how many must be right for her to score 18 or more? intermediate
  • A 20
  • B 19
  • C 21
  • D 18
Show answer
Answer: 20
Why:

With c right: c × 1 − (25 − c) × 0.25 ≥ 18. c = 20 gives 18.75; c = 19 gives only 17.5.

Q13 Marking is +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong. Neha attempts all 30 questions of a section. At least how many must be right for her to score 20 or more? intermediate
  • A 20
  • B 22
  • C 21
  • D 23
Show answer
Answer: 22
Why:

With c right: c × 1 − (30 − c) × 0.25 ≥ 20. c = 22 gives 20; c = 21 gives only 18.75.

Q14 Marking is +2 for right and −0.5 for wrong. Neha attempts all 25 questions of a section. At least how many must be right for her to score 40 or more? advanced
  • A 20
  • B 22
  • C 21
  • D 23
Show answer
Answer: 21
Why:

With c right: c × 2 − (25 − c) × 0.5 ≥ 40. c = 21 gives 40; c = 20 gives only 37.5.

Q15 Marking is +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong. Neha attempts all 35 questions of a section. At least how many must be right for her to score 25 or more? advanced
  • A 25
  • B 26
  • C 28
  • D 27
Show answer
Answer: 27
Why:

With c right: c × 1 − (35 − c) × 0.25 ≥ 25. c = 27 gives 25; c = 26 gives only 23.75.

Q16 With +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong, you guess among all four options without ruling any out. What is the expected gain from the guess, in marks? intermediate
  • A 0.0625
  • B −0.0625
  • C 0.25
  • D 0
Show answer
Answer: 0.0625
Why:

4 options remain: chance right = 1/4, chance wrong = 3/4. Gain = 1/4 − 0.25 × 3/4 = 0.0625.

Q17 With +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong, you rule out 2 options of four and guess among the rest. What is the expected gain from the guess, in marks? beginner
  • A 0.5
  • B 0.375
  • C 0.25
  • D −0.375
Show answer
Answer: 0.375
Why:

2 options remain: chance right = 1/2, chance wrong = 1/2. Gain = 1/2 − 0.25 × 1/2 = 0.375.

Q18 With +2 for right and −0.5 for wrong, you rule out 1 option of four and guess among the rest. What is the expected gain from the guess, in marks? advanced
  • A 2/3
  • B 1/6
  • C 1/3
  • D −1/3
Show answer
Answer: 1/3
Why:

3 options remain: chance right = 1/3, chance wrong = 2/3. Gain = 2/3 − 0.5 × 2/3 = 1/3.

Q19 With +2 for right and −0.5 for wrong, you rule out 2 options of four and guess among the rest. What is the expected gain from the guess, in marks? intermediate
  • A 1
  • B 0.5
  • C −0.75
  • D 0.75
Show answer
Answer: 0.75
Why:

2 options remain: chance right = 1/2, chance wrong = 1/2. Gain = 2/2 − 0.5 × 1/2 = 0.75.

Q20 With +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong, you rule out 1 option of four and guess among the rest. What is the expected gain from the guess, in marks? advanced
  • A 1/6
  • B −1/6
  • C 1/3
  • D 1/12
Show answer
Answer: 1/6
Why:

3 options remain: chance right = 1/3, chance wrong = 2/3. Gain = 1/3 − 0.25 × 2/3 = 1/6.

Q21 A section has 25 questions in 20 minutes. After 12 minutes, Arif has finished 15 questions. How many seconds can he now give to each remaining question on average? intermediate
  • A 120
  • B 48
  • C 58
  • D 19
Show answer
Answer: 48
Why:

Time left = (20 − 12) × 60 = 480 s; questions left = 25 − 15 = 10; 480 ÷ 10 = 48 s.

Q22 A section has 35 questions in 20 minutes. After 10 minutes, Arif has finished 20 questions. How many seconds can he now give to each remaining question on average? advanced
  • A 34
  • B 17
  • C 40
  • D 80
Show answer
Answer: 40
Why:

Time left = (20 − 10) × 60 = 600 s; questions left = 35 − 20 = 15; 600 ÷ 15 = 40 s.

Q23 Sunita attempts 30 questions with 80% accuracy. Marking is +1 for right and −0.25 for wrong. What is her score? beginner
  • A 24
  • B 21
  • C 19
  • D 22.5
Show answer
Answer: 22.5
Why:

Right = 80% of 30 = 24; wrong = 6. Score = 24 × 1 − 6 × 0.25 = 22.5.

Q24 Sunita attempts 40 questions with 85% accuracy. Marking is +2 for right and −0.5 for wrong. What is her score? intermediate
  • A 65
  • B 60.5
  • C 68
  • D 62
Show answer
Answer: 65
Why:

Right = 85% of 40 = 34; wrong = 6. Score = 34 × 2 − 6 × 0.5 = 65.

Q25 A paper has the three puzzle sets in the table, with the time each needs. Which set should you attempt first to get the most questions per minute? ![Table of puzzle sets: set A, 8 people, circle, mixed facing, 5 questions, 8 minutes; set B, 6 people, row, all face north, 5 questions, 4 minutes; set C, 7 floors, 2 attributes, 5 questions, 6 minutes.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/sets-a.svg) beginner
  • A Set C
  • B Set B
  • C Any set: they are equal
  • D Set A
Show answer
Answer: Set B
Why:

Questions per minute: A: 5 ÷ 8 = 0.625, B: 5 ÷ 4 = 1.25, C: 5 ÷ 6 ≈ 0.83. Set B gives the most.

Q26 A paper has the three puzzle sets in the table, with the time each needs. Which set should you attempt first to get the most questions per minute? ![Table of puzzle sets: set P, 5 boxes, one stack, 3 questions, 2 minutes; set Q, 6 days, 2 attributes, 5 questions, 5 minutes; set R, 8 people, square table, 4 questions, 6 minutes.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/sets-b.svg) intermediate
  • A Set R
  • B Any set: they are equal
  • C Set P
  • D Set Q
Show answer
Answer: Set P
Why:

Questions per minute: P: 3 ÷ 2 = 1.5, Q: 5 ÷ 5 = 1, R: 4 ÷ 6 ≈ 0.67. Set P gives the most.

Q27 From the table, how many seconds per question does set Q need? ![Table of puzzle sets: set P, 5 boxes, one stack, 3 questions, 2 minutes; set Q, 6 days, 2 attributes, 5 questions, 5 minutes; set R, 8 people, square table, 4 questions, 6 minutes.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/sets-b.svg) intermediate
  • A 72
  • B 48
  • C 50
  • D 60
Show answer
Answer: 60
Why:

5 minutes = 300 s, and 300 ÷ 5 = 60 s.

Q28 Using the time plan in the table, how many seconds are left over for review in a 1200-second mock? ![Table: Series, 3 questions, 30 seconds each, round 1; Analogy, odd one out, 3 questions, 30 seconds each, round 1; Coding-decoding, 2 questions, 40 seconds each, round 1; Alphabet, 1 question, 30 seconds each, round 1; Ranking, 1 question, 30 seconds each, round 1; Inequalities, 2 questions, 25 seconds each, round 1; Non-verbal, 2 questions, 35 seconds each, round 1; Blood relations, 2 questions, 40 seconds each, round 2; Directions, 2 questions, 45 seconds each, round 2; Syllogism, 2 questions, 45 seconds each, round 2; Venn or sufficiency, 1 question, 45 seconds each, round 2; Clock or calendar, 1 question, 45 seconds each, round 2; Puzzle set, 3 questions, 80 seconds each, round 3.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/time-plan.svg) advanced
  • A 170
  • B 140
  • C 1030
  • D 250
Show answer
Answer: 170
Why:

Planned time = 3 × 30 + 3 × 30 + 2 × 40 + 1 × 30 + 1 × 30 + 2 × 25 + 2 × 35 + 2 × 40 + 2 × 45 + 2 × 45 + 1 × 45 + 1 × 45 + 3 × 80 = 1030 s. Left over = 1200 − 1030 = 170 s.

Q29 In the bar chart, what percent of the 1200 seconds is planned for round 3? ![Bar chart of seconds: round 1 440, round 2 350, round 3 240, review 170; total 1200 seconds.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/round-plan.svg) intermediate
  • A 25%
  • B 20%
  • C 2%
  • D 24%
Show answer
Answer: 20%
Why:

240 ÷ 1200 × 100 = 20%.

Q30 In a 25-question reasoning section, which of these should normally be attempted first? beginner
  • A A data sufficiency question on a puzzle
  • B An 8-person circular puzzle with mixed facing
  • C A direct inequality question
  • D A floor puzzle with three attributes
Show answer
Answer: A direct inequality question
Why:

A direct inequality is a one-liner that takes about 20 seconds; the others need a full arrangement.

Q31 Which puzzle set is usually the fastest to solve? beginner
  • A 8 people at a square table, some facing out
  • B 7 floors with two attributes and many negative clues
  • C 8 people in a circle with mixed facing
  • D 6 people in a row, all facing north, with definite clues
Show answer
Answer: 6 people in a row, all facing north, with definite clues
Why:

Few people, one facing direction, one variable and definite clues: Few, Straight, Sure.

Q32 You have spent two minutes on a puzzle set and still cannot fix the seat of anyone. What is the best move? beginner
  • A Leave the set and move to another set or round
  • B Guess all its questions at once
  • C Start the paper again from question 1
  • D Keep going until it is solved
Show answer
Answer: Leave the set and move to another set or round
Why:

The two-minute rule: time sunk in a stuck set is time taken from questions you can solve.

Q33 Pointing to Rekha, Arun says, "She is the wife of my mother's only son." Before solving, which options can be struck out at once? intermediate
  • A Only "mother"
  • B Any male relation, such as brother or uncle
  • C None: every option must be checked fully
  • D Any female relation
Show answer
Answer: Any male relation, such as brother or uncle
Why:

"She" tells us Rekha is a woman, so male relations go. (The answer is wife: the only son is Arun.)

Q34 Statement: P > Q ≥ R. Conclusions: I. P > R II. P ≤ R. Which conclusion(s) follow? advanced
  • A Neither conclusion I nor II is true
  • B Either conclusion I or II is true
  • C Only conclusion I is true
  • D Both conclusions I and II are true
Show answer
Answer: Only conclusion I is true
Why:

I and II look like a complementary pair, which tempts "either-or". But P > Q ≥ R makes P > R certain, so only I is true. Either-or is right only when neither conclusion is certain.

Q35 Which habit gives the biggest rise in mock scores over a month? intermediate
  • A Solving only the hardest puzzle sets
  • B Taking more mocks without reviewing them
  • C Attempting every question in every mock
  • D Reviewing every mistake and writing its trap in a notebook
Show answer
Answer: Reviewing every mistake and writing its trap in a notebook
Why:

The same traps repeat; naming them once stops most repeat errors.

Q36 A series rises at every step: 7, 12, 19, 28, ?. Without finding the rule, which option can be struck out at once? beginner
  • A 25
  • B 41
  • C 39
  • D 37
Show answer
Answer: 25
Why:

A rising series cannot drop below 28, so 25 goes. (The gaps 5, 7, 9 give 11 next: 39.)

Q37 In a row of players, Usha is 12th from the left end and 11th from the right end. How many players are there in the row? beginner
  • A 23
  • B 22
  • C 24
  • D 21
Show answer
Answer: 22
Why:

Usha is counted from both ends, so total = 12 + 11 − 1 = 22.

Q38 In a row of 32 players, Chirag is 17th from the left end and Meera is 11th from the right end. How many players are there between Chirag and Meera? intermediate
  • A 3
  • B 6
  • C 4
  • D 5
Show answer
Answer: 4
Why:

From the left, Meera is at 32 − 11 + 1 = 22. Chirag is at 17. Between them: |22 − 17| − 1 = 4.

Q39 One morning, Tanvi and Nikhil stand facing each other. Tanvi's shadow falls exactly to the right of Nikhil. Which direction is Nikhil facing? intermediate
  • A West
  • B East
  • C North
  • D South
Show answer
Answer: South
Why:

In the morning the sun is in the east, so shadows point west. Nikhil's right is west, so Nikhil faces south.

Q40 What is the smaller angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 10:10? intermediate
  • A 115°
  • B 120°
  • C 130°
  • D 245°
Show answer
Answer: 115°
Why:

θ = |30H − 5.5M| = |30 × 10 − 5.5 × 10| = 245°; the smaller angle is 360° − 245° = 115°.

Q41 A wall clock shows 8:04. What time will its image in a plane mirror show? beginner
  • A 10:26
  • B 3:56
  • C 4:56
  • D 2:56
Show answer
Answer: 3:56
Why:

Clock time + mirror time = 12:00. 11:60 − 8:04 = 3:56.

Q42 Is the year 2200 a leap year, and how many odd days does it have? advanced
  • A Yes, 0 odd days
  • B Yes, 2 odd days
  • C No, 1 odd day
  • D No, 2 odd days
Show answer
Answer: No, 1 odd day
Why:

A century year is a leap year only if it divides by 400. 2200 ÷ 400 leaves a remainder, so it is an ordinary year with 365 days: 1 odd day.

Q43 Statement: M ≥ K ≤ D = H > E > Y Conclusions: I. Y ≤ K II. Y < M Which conclusion(s) follow? advanced
  • A Only conclusion I is true
  • B Only conclusion II is true
  • C Both conclusions I and II are true
  • D Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Why:

I: Y ≤ K is not certain: the signs between Y and K point both ways (Y < E < H = D ≥ K). II: Y < M is not certain: the signs between Y and M point both ways (Y < E < H = D ≥ K ≤ M).

Q44 Choose the correct water image of FJ2R when the water surface MN is below it. ![The text FJ2R with a horizontal water line below it. Answers: (1) R2JF, each character flipped sideways; (2) R2JF, each character upside down and flipped sideways; (3) R2JF, each character upside down; (4) FJ2R, each character upside down.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-mw-1.svg) intermediate
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 4
Why:

In a water image, the order stays and each character turns upside down. Only figure (4) shows both changes; the others show the other image or half the change.

Q45 Pooja starts from point O and walks 60 m towards the north. She then turns right and walks 80 m. She then turns left and walks 150 m. She then turns left and walks 30 m. Which direction is Pooja facing now? advanced
  • A West
  • B South
  • C East
  • D North
Show answer
Answer: West
Why:

Start facing north; turns right, left, left (each right is 90° clockwise, each left 90° anticlockwise) leave her facing west.

Q46 Assertion (A): A six-person row facing north is usually a better first puzzle set than an eight-person circle with mixed facing. Reason (R): Fewer people and one facing direction leave fewer cases to test. beginner
  • A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C A is true but R is false
  • D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Why:

R is the reason the row is faster, so R explains A.

Q47 Assertion (A): Under +1 and −0.25 marking, a guess after striking out two options is worth taking. Reason (R): A blind guess among four options has an expected gain of 0.0625 marks. advanced
  • A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C A is true but R is false
  • D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Answer: Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
Why:

Both are true, but R is about a blind guess; A holds because 0.5 − 0.125 = 0.375 after striking two.

Q48 Which of these are good habits in a reasoning section? 1. Solving the one-liners before any puzzle set. 2. Choosing the puzzle set that has the most people. beginner
  • A 1 only
  • B 2 only
  • C Both 1 and 2
  • D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: 1 only
Why:

1 collects quick marks; 2 picks the slowest kind of set.

Important short questions (4)

Find the time budget per question for 35 questions in 20 minutes, and say how you would use it.

1200 ÷ 35 ≈ 34 seconds. Spend about 20 seconds on one-liners so that puzzle questions can get about 60 seconds each.

Name three features that make a puzzle set quick to solve.

Few people, one facing direction (or one variable), and definite clues that fix positions.

Under +1 and −0.25 marking, is a guess between three options worth it? Show the working.

Expected gain = 1/3 − 0.25 × 2/3 = 0.333 − 0.167 = 0.167 marks. Yes, if it takes only a few seconds.

Give two quick checks that strike out options in blood-relation and series questions.

Blood relations: the gender of the person asked about removes relations of the other gender. Series: a rising series cannot give a smaller next term.

Long answer questions (1)

Make a plan for a 25-question, 20-minute reasoning mock and explain how you will choose the puzzle set and review afterwards.

Round 1, one-liners (14 questions, about 440 s). Round 2, draw-and-solve (8 questions, about 350 s). Round 3, one puzzle set (3 questions, about 240 s). Review 170 s.

For the set, compare questions ÷ minutes and prefer few people, one facing direction and definite clues. Leave a set if two people are not fixed in two minutes.

After the mock, list every error with its type and the trap behind it, and revise those traps before the next mock.

Flashcards (14)

Seconds per question for 25 questions in 20 minutes?
48
Seconds per question for 35 questions in 20 minutes?
About 34
What goes in round 1?
One-liners: series, analogy, coding, alphabet, inequalities
What goes in round 2?
Blood relations, directions, syllogism, Venn, clock and calendar
How do you compare puzzle sets?
Questions ÷ minutes needed
Which seating set is usually fastest?
A short row facing one way
Two-minute rule?
Leave a set if two people are not fixed in two minutes
Facing south, which way is right?
West
Total in a row from ranks L and R?
L + R − 1
Mirror time for a clock showing 3:20?
8:40
Is 1900 a leap year?
No
Expected gain of a blind guess, +1 / −0.25, four options?
0.0625
Expected gain after striking two options, +1 / −0.25?
0.375
When is "either I or II" the answer?
When neither is certain but one must be true

Play this topic

  • Strategy check

Mixed Practice Across All Chapters

Practise every reasoning chapter in mixed order, as the real paper sets it: spot the type from its key words in a few seconds, recall the one method it needs (rule bank, EJOTY, family tree, path, Venn cases, clock formula), solve, and check the key against the data.

What you will be able to do

  • I can name the chapter and method of a reasoning question from its key words.
  • I can switch between chapters without losing speed.
  • I can solve a three-question puzzle set from one set of clues.
  • I can check an answer by putting it back into the data.

Key points

  • Series: try differences first, then ratios, then squares and cubes, then two series mixed at alternate places.

  • Letter positions: EJOTY marks 5, 10, 15, 20, 25; opposite letters add up to 27 (A–Z, M–N).

  • Odd one out: check that no second simple rule singles out a different option.

  • Blood relations: draw the tree with + for male and − for female; read the answer from the person asked about.

  • Directions: draw every leg; the final direction is from the start to the end point.

  • Inequalities: a conclusion is true only if every sign on the path points the same way.

  • Syllogism: a conclusion follows only if it is true in every Venn diagram that fits the statements.

  • Clock: θ = |30H − 5.5M|; take 360° − θ if θ is over 180°.

  • Calendar: an ordinary year moves the day by 1, a leap year by 2.

  • Mirror image: left and right swap; water image: top and bottom swap.

Full explanation

One paper, eighteen chapters

Imran had practised each chapter on its own and scored well in chapter tests. In a mixed mock, the switch from a syllogism to a dice question to a coding question slowed him down: he kept re-reading questions to work out what they were.

Mixed practice trains one more skill: naming the type and its method in a few seconds.

Spot the type

The first five seconds decide the next forty. Look for the key words, then use the method that goes with them.

Six cards linking key words to methods: numbers with a question mark to series checks; pointing to and son of to a family tree; walks, turns and shadow to a path; all, some, no to Venn cases; symbols between letters to decoding first; a word in capitals to letter numbers.

Series, analogy and odd one out

Write the differences under the terms. If they do not settle, try ratios, then squares and cubes, then split the series into odd and even places.

In 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, ? the differences 4, 8, 16, 32 double, so the next is 63 + 64 = 127. The rule ×2 + 1 gives the same 127, so the answer is safe.

For odd one out, find the rule shared by three options, then check that no other simple rule (prime, square, even, digit sum) picks a different option.

Coding and alphabet

Learn EJOTY: E = 5, J = 10, O = 15, T = 20, Y = 25. Opposite letters add up to 27: A–Z, B–Y, M–N.

If GOLD is written as HPME, each letter moves +1, so SALT becomes TBMU. Check the first letter of every option first: only options starting with T survive.

Relations and directions

For relations, draw a small tree: one row per generation, + for male, − for female, a double line for a couple. Then read the answer from the person asked about.

For directions, draw each leg and add them up. Walking 6 km north, 8 km east gives a straight-line distance of $\sqrt{6^2+8^2}=10$ km, to the north-east of the start.

Worked example: a puzzle set

Five friends sit in a row, all facing north.

  • Chetan sits at one end of the row.
  • Bina sits second to the right of Chetan.
  • Dev sits immediately to the right of Bina.
  • Esha does not sit at an end.

Chetan must be at the left end, because Bina is two places to his right. Then Bina is 3rd and Dev 4th. Esha is not at an end, so she is 2nd, and Asha is 5th. One drawing now answers every question of the set.

A row of five seats facing north, from left to right: Chetan, Esha, Bina, Dev, Asha.

Venn regions

In region questions, read each number as one region only. In the figure, the people who take exactly two drinks are the three two-circle regions: 6 + 4 + 7 = 17. All tea drinkers are the four regions inside the Tea circle: 14 + 6 + 4 + 3 = 27.

Three overlapping circles Tea, Coffee and Milk. Only tea 14, only coffee 9, only milk 11, tea and coffee only 6, tea and milk only 4, coffee and milk only 7, all three 3.

Clock and calendar

The angle between the hands is $\theta=|30H-5.5M|$. At 4:20 it is $|120-110|=10^\circ$: the hour hand has moved past 4 while the minute hand reached 4.

For days of the week count odd days: 1 for an ordinary year, 2 for a leap year, and a century year is a leap year only if it divides by 400.

A clock showing 4:20, with the small angle of 10 degrees between the hands marked.

Figures and dice

Mirror on the right: left and right swap, top stays on top. Water below: top and bottom swap, left stays left. A clock in a mirror shows 11:60 minus the real time.

For dice, a letter seen next to four others in two positions is opposite the sixth.

Imran's mixed mock

After three weeks of mixed sets, Imran named each question type before reading it fully and kept a one-line method for each. His time per question fell from 55 to 41 seconds, and his mixed-mock score rose from 16 to 21 out of 25.

Mind map of the mixed paper: patterns, codes, drawings, logic, formulas and figures.

Concepts and terms

Type spotting

Key words name the chapter: "pointing to" means relations, "walks and turns" means directions, "some and all" means syllogism.

One setup, many questions

In a puzzle set, fix the arrangement once and answer three questions from the same drawing.

Back-check

Put the chosen option back into the clues or the rule; if one clue fails, the option is wrong.

Did you know

Every key in this chapter was checked by a program: series against a bank of rules, puzzles against every possible arrangement, syllogisms against every Venn case.

Memory tricks

Letter positions — EJOTY — E = 5, J = 10, O = 15, T = 20, Y = 25.

Series checks — Diff, Ratio, Power, Mix — Try differences, ratios, squares or cubes, then two mixed series.

Practice MCQs with answers (96)

Q1 What comes in place of the question mark (?) in the series: 2, 6, 13, 39, 46, 138, ? beginner
  • A 145
  • B 414
  • C 141
  • D 421
Show answer
Answer: 145
Why:

The steps alternate: ×3, +7, ×3, +7, ×3. The next step is +7: 138 + 7 = 145.

Q2 Which number should come next in the series 7, 11, 17, 25, 35, 47, ? intermediate
  • A 60
  • B 61
  • C 59
  • D 63
Show answer
Answer: 61
Why:

The differences are 4, 6, 8, 10, 12: each is 2 more than the one before. The next difference is 14, so the term is 47 + 14 = 61.

Q3 What comes in place of the question mark (?) in the series: 2, 6, 14, 30, 62, 126, ? advanced
  • A 252
  • B 255
  • C 254
  • D 318
Show answer
Answer: 254
Why:

The differences 4, 8, 16, 32, 64 are multiplied by 2 each time. The next difference is 128: 126 + 128 = 254.

Q4 Find the next number in the series: 18, 39, 21, 34, 24, 29, 27, ? beginner
  • A 30
  • B 34
  • C 19
  • D 24
Show answer
Answer: 24
Why:

Two series are mixed. Odd places: 18, 21, 24, 27 (step +3); even places: 39, 34, 29 (step −5). The missing term is at an even place: 29 − 5 = 24.

Q5 Find the missing term: LII, JLJ, HOL, FRO, ? intermediate
  • A DUS
  • B CUS
  • C SUD
  • D DVS
Show answer
Answer: DUS
Why:

Treat each position separately: letter 1 moves 2 letters back each time (D); letter 2 moves 3 letters forward each time (U); letter 3 moves forward by 1, 2, 3, 4 (one more each time) (S). Answer DUS.

Q6 Find the missing term: E, G, I, K, M, ? advanced
  • A P
  • B O
  • C N
  • D Q
Show answer
Answer: O
Why:

Write the letter numbers: 5, 7, 9, 11, 13. The series moves 2 letters forward each time, so the next is 15 = O.

Q7 Find the missing term: K, L, N, Q, U, ? beginner
  • A A
  • B Y
  • C Z
  • D B
Show answer
Answer: Z
Why:

Write the letter numbers: 11, 12, 14, 17, 21. The series moves forward by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (one more each time), so the next is 26 = Z.

Q8 Find the missing term: ADO, BIP, DNR, GSU, ? intermediate
  • A JXY
  • B YXK
  • C LXY
  • D KXY
Show answer
Answer: KXY
Why:

Treat each position separately: letter 1 moves forward by 1, 2, 3, 4 (one more each time) (K); letter 2 moves 5 letters forward each time (X); letter 3 moves forward by 1, 2, 3, 4 (one more each time) (Y). Answer KXY.

Q9 Select the number that is related to 7 in the same way as 49 is related to 8. 8 : 49 :: 7 : ? advanced
  • A 36
  • B 35
  • C 29
  • D 37
Show answer
Answer: 36
Why:

The rule is (n − 1)² with n = the first number: 8 gives 49, so 7 gives 36. No other simple rule that turns 8 into 49 gives any other option.

Q10 Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as the numbers of the given pair. 7 : 36 beginner
  • A 3 : 2
  • B 5 : 16
  • C 10 : 80
  • D 8 : 50
Show answer
Answer: 5 : 16
Why:

7 : 36 follows (n − 1)². Check the options: only 5 : 16 follows it; every other pair breaks it and fits no other simple rule that gives 7 : 36.

Q11 Select the number that is related to 4 in the same way as 222 is related to 6. 6 : 222 :: 4 : ? intermediate
  • A 72
  • B 69
  • C 68
  • D 67
Show answer
Answer: 68
Why:

The rule is n³ + n with n = the first number: 6 gives 222, so 4 gives 68. No other simple rule that turns 6 into 222 gives any other option.

Q12 Select the letter cluster that fits the analogy. TIGE : UKJI :: CLOU : ? advanced
  • A BKNT
  • B YRND
  • C DMPV
  • D DNRY
Show answer
Answer: DNRY
Why:

From TIGE to UKJI, the letters move by +1, +2, +3, +4 and so on, from the left. The same change on CLOU gives DNRY.

Q13 Select the letter cluster that fits the analogy. LIG : OLJ :: FIE : ? beginner
  • A ILH
  • B JMI
  • C HLI
  • D CFB
Show answer
Answer: ILH
Why:

From LIG to OLJ, each letter moves 3 places forward (+3). The same change on FIE gives ILH.

Q14 Select the letter cluster that fits the analogy. SPI : RNF :: BUT : ? intermediate
  • A QSA
  • B ASQ
  • C CVU
  • D ATS
Show answer
Answer: ASQ
Why:

From SPI to RNF, the letters move by −1, −2, −3, −4 and so on, from the left. The same change on BUT gives ASQ.

Q15 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Needle : Sew :: Axe : ? advanced
  • A Wood
  • B Sharp
  • C Chop
  • D Handle
Show answer
Answer: Chop
Why:

The pair shows a tool and its use: Needle → Sew. In the same way, Axe → Chop. The other options are linked to Axe in a different way.

Q16 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Rabbit : Burrow :: Ant : ? beginner
  • A Queen
  • B Colony
  • C Sugar
  • D Anthill
Show answer
Answer: Anthill
Why:

The pair shows a creature and its home: Rabbit → Burrow. In the same way, Ant → Anthill. The other options are linked to Ant in a different way.

Q17 Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word. Goat : Kid :: Lion : ? intermediate
  • A Cub
  • B Den
  • C Roar
  • D Tiger
Show answer
Answer: Cub
Why:

The pair shows an animal and its young one: Goat → Kid. In the same way, Lion → Cub. The other options are linked to Lion in a different way.

Q18 Find the odd number out: 19, 47, 61, 77 advanced
  • A 61
  • B 77
  • C 19
  • D 47
Show answer
Answer: 77
Why:

19, 47, 61 are prime numbers; 77 is not. No other simple property (prime, square, even, digit sum, multiples) separates a different number.

Q19 Find the odd number out: 23, 43, 59, 93 beginner
  • A 23
  • B 43
  • C 93
  • D 59
Show answer
Answer: 93
Why:

23, 43, 59 are prime numbers; 93 is not. No other simple property (prime, square, even, digit sum, multiples) separates a different number.

Q20 Find the odd number out: 47, 61, 79, 99 intermediate
  • A 47
  • B 61
  • C 79
  • D 99
Show answer
Answer: 99
Why:

47, 61, 79 are prime numbers; 99 is not. No other simple property (prime, square, even, digit sum, multiples) separates a different number.

Q21 Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Find the odd one: ABA, EFE, MNM, PRQ advanced
  • A PRQ
  • B ABA
  • C EFE
  • D MNM
Show answer
Answer: PRQ
Why:

Write the gaps between neighbouring letters. In ABA, EFE, MNM the gaps are +1, −1; in PRQ they are +2, −1.

Q22 Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Find the odd one: DHJK, GKMN, NRST, PTVW beginner
  • A GKMN
  • B NRST
  • C PTVW
  • D DHJK
Show answer
Answer: NRST
Why:

Write the gaps between neighbouring letters. In DHJK, GKMN, PTVW the gaps are +4, +2, +1; in NRST they are +4, +1, +1.

Q23 Three of the following letter clusters are alike in some manner and one is different. Find the odd one: HJEF, IKFG, MPKL, UWRS intermediate
  • A UWRS
  • B HJEF
  • C MPKL
  • D IKFG
Show answer
Answer: MPKL
Why:

Write the gaps between neighbouring letters. In HJEF, IKFG, UWRS the gaps are +2, −5, +1; in MPKL they are +3, −5, +1.

Q24 Select the word that does not belong to the group: Mars, Comet, Venus, Earth advanced
  • A Earth
  • B Mars
  • C Venus
  • D Comet
Show answer
Answer: Comet
Why:

Comet: the others are planets; a comet is not a planet.

Q25 Select the word that does not belong to the group: Ektara, Sarod, Santoor, Mridangam beginner
  • A Mridangam
  • B Sarod
  • C Santoor
  • D Ektara
Show answer
Answer: Mridangam
Why:

Mridangam: the others are string instruments; the mridangam is a drum.

Q26 Select the word that does not belong to the group: Hockey, Squash, Badminton, Tennis intermediate
  • A Badminton
  • B Hockey
  • C Tennis
  • D Squash
Show answer
Answer: Hockey
Why:

Hockey: the others are played with a racket; hockey is played with a stick.

Q27 Three of the following number pairs follow the same rule and one does not. Select the odd pair: 5 : 23; 6 : 30; 8 : 38; 9 : 43 advanced
  • A 9 : 43
  • B 5 : 23
  • C 6 : 30
  • D 8 : 38
Show answer
Answer: 6 : 30
Why:

The rule is second = n × 5 − 2, where n is the first number. 6 : 30 breaks it: 6 should give 28.

Q28 Three of the following number pairs follow the same rule and one does not. Select the odd pair: 3 : 6; 6 : 30; 8 : 58; 9 : 72 beginner
  • A 3 : 6
  • B 6 : 30
  • C 9 : 72
  • D 8 : 58
Show answer
Answer: 8 : 58
Why:

The rule is second = n × (n − 1), where n is the first number. 8 : 58 breaks it: 8 should give 56.

Q29 In a certain code language, CRANE is written as DMZQB. How is NIGHT written in that language? intermediate
  • A SGFHM
  • B RFEGL
  • C MHFGS
  • D THGIN
Show answer
Answer: SGFHM
Why:

Compare CRANE with DMZQB: the word is reversed and then each letter moves −1. Doing the same to NIGHT gives SGFHM.

Q30 In a certain code language, HAMMER is written as FYKKCP. How is MARKET written in that language? advanced
  • A JXOHBQ
  • B KYPICR
  • C RCIPYK
  • D OCTMGV
Show answer
Answer: KYPICR
Why:

Compare HAMMER with FYKKCP: each letter moves 2 places back (−2). Doing the same to MARKET gives KYPICR.

Q31 In a certain code language, KETTLE is written as ELTTEK. How is LADDER written in that language? beginner
  • A LADDER
  • B SFEEBM
  • C REDDAL
  • D QDCCZK
Show answer
Answer: REDDAL
Why:

Compare KETTLE with ELTTEK: the letters are written in reverse order. Doing the same to LADDER gives REDDAL.

Q32 In a certain code, BLACK is written as 34. How will CRANE be written in that code? intermediate
  • A 45
  • B 41
  • C 47
  • D 46
Show answer
Answer: 46
Why:

BLACK: 2 + 12 + 1 + 3 + 11 = 29, and the code is 34, so add the letter numbers and then add 5. CRANE: 3 + 18 + 1 + 14 + 5 = 41, giving 46.

Q33 In a certain code, BREAD is written as 32. How will STONE be written in that code? advanced
  • A 75
  • B 73
  • C 76
  • D 74
Show answer
Answer: 75
Why:

BREAD: 2 + 18 + 5 + 1 + 4 = 30, and the code is 32, so add the letter numbers and then add 2. STONE: 19 + 20 + 15 + 14 + 5 = 73, giving 75.

Q34 In a certain code, WOLF is written as 4121521. How will PINK be written in that code? beginner
  • A 1114916
  • B 11181316
  • C 1691411
  • D 17101512
Show answer
Answer: 11181316
Why:

In WOLF → 4121521, each letter is replaced by its number counted from Z (Z = 1, A = 26). So PINK → 11181316.

Q35 In a certain code language: 1. 'honey curd moon' is written as 'bi ge nu' 2. 'flower honey sun' is written as 'ge si ho' 3. 'flower moon sugar' is written as 'ho mo bi' What is the code for "flower"? intermediate
  • A bi
  • B ge
  • C ho
  • D si
Show answer
Answer: ho
Why:

"flower" appears in lines 2 and 3; the only code common to both lines is ho.

Q36 In a certain code language: 1. 'soil ink tea' is written as 'fa si lo' 2. 'soil sugar paper' is written as 'lo ho mo' 3. 'leaf tea paper' is written as 'bi fa ho' Which word is coded as "si"? advanced
  • A paper
  • B soil
  • C tea
  • D ink
Show answer
Answer: ink
Why:

"ink" appears only in line 1. The other two words of that line also appear elsewhere, so their codes are lo (soil) and fa (tea). The code left is si.

Q37 Chirag is the son of Tarun. Tarun is the son of Pooja. How is Chirag related to Pooja? beginner
  • A grandson
  • B son
  • C grandfather
  • D grandmother
Show answer
Answer: grandson
Why:

Work back from Pooja: Tarun is Pooja's son. So Chirag is Pooja's grandson (son's son).

Q38 Rekha is the wife of Imran. Imran is the son of Pooja. How is Rekha related to Pooja? intermediate
  • A niece
  • B daughter-in-law
  • C wife
  • D daughter
Show answer
Answer: daughter-in-law
Why:

Work back from Pooja: Imran is Pooja's son. So Rekha is Pooja's daughter-in-law (son's wife).

Q39 Bhavna is the daughter of Sohan. Sohan is the son of Chirag. How is Bhavna related to Chirag? advanced
  • A grandmother
  • B daughter
  • C granddaughter
  • D grandfather
Show answer
Answer: granddaughter
Why:

Work back from Chirag: Sohan is Chirag's son. So Bhavna is Chirag's granddaughter (son's daughter).

Q40 'P # Q' means 'P is the sister of Q'; 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is the wife of Q'; 'P + Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'. If Pooja # Hema ÷ Nikhil, how is Pooja related to Nikhil? beginner
  • A sister
  • B cousin
  • C wife
  • D sister-in-law
Show answer
Answer: sister-in-law
Why:

Decode: Pooja is the sister of Hema. Hema is the wife of Nikhil. Work back from Nikhil: Hema is Nikhil's wife. So Pooja is Nikhil's sister-in-law (wife's sister).

Q41 'P # Q' means 'P is the father of Q'; 'P ÷ Q' means 'P is the brother of Q'; 'P % Q' means 'P is the daughter of Q'. If Rekha % Chirag ÷ Pankaj, how is Rekha related to Pankaj? intermediate
  • A niece
  • B wife
  • C daughter
  • D daughter-in-law
Show answer
Answer: niece
Why:

Decode: Rekha is the daughter of Chirag. Chirag is the brother of Pankaj. Work back from Pankaj: Chirag is Pankaj's brother. So Rekha is Pankaj's niece (brother's daughter).

Q42 Pointing to Vandana, Karan said, "She is my son's wife." How is Vandana related to Karan? advanced
  • A daughter
  • B daughter-in-law
  • C niece
  • D wife
Show answer
Answer: daughter-in-law
Why:

Work back from Karan: Imran is Karan's son. So Vandana is Karan's daughter-in-law (son's wife).

Q43 Pointing to Arjun, Sapna said, "He is my father's brother." How is Arjun related to Sapna? beginner
  • A father-in-law
  • B husband
  • C uncle
  • D father
Show answer
Answer: uncle
Why:

Work back from Sapna: Deepak is Sapna's father. So Arjun is Sapna's uncle (father's brother).

Q44 Pointing to Meera, Bharat said, "She is my son's daughter." How is Meera related to Bharat? intermediate
  • A daughter
  • B grandfather
  • C grandmother
  • D granddaughter
Show answer
Answer: granddaughter
Why:

Work back from Bharat: Nikhil is Bharat's son. So Meera is Bharat's granddaughter (son's daughter).

Q45 Farah starts from point P and walks 150 m towards the south. She then turns right and walks 50 m. She then turns left and walks 30 m. She then turns left and walks 120 m. Which direction is Farah facing now? advanced
  • A East
  • B South
  • C North
  • D West
Show answer
Answer: East
Why:

Start facing south; turns right, left, left (each right is 90° clockwise, each left 90° anticlockwise) leave her facing east.

Q46 Rakesh starts from point Q and walks 60 m towards the north. He then turns left and walks 70 m. He then turns left and walks 120 m. In which direction is Rakesh now from point Q? beginner
  • A South-east
  • B South-west
  • C North-west
  • D North-east
Show answer
Answer: South-west
Why:

Legs: 60 m north, 70 m west, 120 m south. Net: 70 m west and 60 m south of Q, so Rakesh is to the south-west of Q.

Q47 Usha starts from point S and walks 2 km towards the north. She then turns right and walks 7 km. She then turns left and walks 2 km. She then turns left and walks 4 km. How far is Usha now from point S? intermediate
  • A 15 km
  • B 1 km
  • C 5 km
  • D 7 km
Show answer
Answer: 5 km
Why:

Net movement: 3 km east and 4 km north. Distance = √(3² + 4²) = √25 = 5 km.

Q48 Just before sunset, Deepak stands in an open field and sees that his shadow falls to his right. Which direction is Deepak facing? advanced
  • A West
  • B South
  • C East
  • D North
Show answer
Answer: North
Why:

The sun is in the west, so shadows point east. The shadow is to his right, so Deepak faces north.

Q49 Just before sunset, Gaurav stands in an open field and sees that his shadow falls to his left. Which direction is Gaurav facing? beginner
  • A South
  • B North
  • C East
  • D West
Show answer
Answer: South
Why:

The sun is in the west, so shadows point east. The shadow is to his left, so Gaurav faces south.

Q50 In a class of 60 students, Bharat ranks 9th from the top. Zoya is 2 ranks below Bharat. What is Zoya's rank from the bottom? intermediate
  • A 52
  • B 50
  • C 51
  • D 49
Show answer
Answer: 50
Why:

Zoya is 11th from the top, so from the bottom it is 60 − 11 + 1 = 50.

Q51 Farah is 14th from the front in a queue of 33 people. What is her position from the back? advanced
  • A 19
  • B 21
  • C 20
  • D 14
Show answer
Answer: 20
Why:

Position from the back = 33 − 14 + 1 = 20.

Q52 In a row of students, Farah is 17th from the left end and 26th from the right end. How many students are there in the row? beginner
  • A 43
  • B 44
  • C 41
  • D 42
Show answer
Answer: 42
Why:

Farah is counted from both ends, so total = 17 + 26 − 1 = 42.

Q53 Kavita, Rekha, Isha, Nisha and Vinod took a test and no two scored the same. Kavita scored less than Isha but more than Rekha. Rekha scored less than Isha but more than Vinod. Kavita scored less than Nisha but more than Vinod. Isha scored more than Nisha. Who scored the third highest marks? intermediate
  • A Kavita
  • B Vinod
  • C Rekha
  • D Nisha
Show answer
Answer: Kavita
Why:

Combining the clues, the order from highest to lowest is Isha > Nisha > Kavita > Rekha > Vinod. Place 3: Kavita.

Q54 Usha, Ritu, Rakesh, Mansi and Sanjay took a test and no two scored the same. Ritu scored less than Rakesh but more than Usha. Usha scored less than Ritu but more than Sanjay. Sanjay scored more than Mansi. Who scored the fourth highest marks? advanced
  • A Rakesh
  • B Sanjay
  • C Mansi
  • D Usha
Show answer
Answer: Sanjay
Why:

Combining the clues, the order from highest to lowest is Rakesh > Ritu > Usha > Sanjay > Mansi. Place 4: Sanjay.

Q55 If the words MOUNT, MOUTH, MOURN, MOUSE, MOULD are arranged in dictionary order, which word comes 3rd? beginner
  • A MOULD
  • B MOUSE
  • C MOURN
  • D MOUNT
Show answer
Answer: MOURN
Why:

Compare letter by letter: MOULD < MOUNT < MOURN < MOUSE < MOUTH. Word 3 is MOURN.

Q56 Which letter is 3rd to the left of the 21st letter from the left end of the English alphabet? intermediate
  • A Q
  • B X
  • C S
  • D R
Show answer
Answer: R
Why:

21st from the left = position 21 = U. Moving 3 to the left: 21 − 3 = 18 = R.

Q57 If the letters of the word CABINET are arranged in alphabetical order, how many letters will remain in the same position? advanced
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 0
Show answer
Answer: 1
Why:

CABINET → ABCEINT. Letters in the same place: T, so 1.

Q58 If the words TRAMP, TRACE, TRADE, TRACK, TRAIL are arranged in dictionary order, which word comes 2nd? beginner
  • A TRACE
  • B TRACK
  • C TRAIL
  • D TRADE
Show answer
Answer: TRACK
Why:

Compare letter by letter: TRACE < TRACK < TRADE < TRAIL < TRAMP. Word 2 is TRACK.

Q59 Statement: Y < Z > T < M < S < Q Conclusions: I. S ≥ Y II. T > Y Which conclusion(s) follow? intermediate
  • A Only conclusion II is true
  • B Both conclusions I and II are true
  • C Neither conclusion I nor II is true
  • D Only conclusion I is true
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Why:

I: S ≥ Y is not certain: the signs between S and Y point both ways (S > M > T < Z > Y). II: T > Y is not certain: the signs between T and Y point both ways (T < Z > Y).

Q60 Statement: V < A > T ≥ H ≤ L < R Conclusions: I. L < V II. H > V Which conclusion(s) follow? advanced
  • A Only conclusion I is true
  • B Only conclusion II is true
  • C Both conclusions I and II are true
  • D Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Why:

I: L < V is not certain: the signs between L and V point both ways (L ≥ H ≤ T < A > V). II: H > V is not certain: the signs between H and V point both ways (H ≤ T < A > V).

Q61 Statement: B < Q < V = G ≤ J Conclusions: I. G > Q II. B > G Which conclusion(s) follow? beginner
  • A Only conclusion I is true
  • B Neither conclusion I nor II is true
  • C Only conclusion II is true
  • D Both conclusions I and II are true
Show answer
Answer: Only conclusion I is true
Why:

I: G > Q is true (G = V > Q). II: B > G is not certain: we only know B < G (B < Q < V = G).

Q62 'P % Q' means 'P is greater than Q'; 'P & Q' means 'P is smaller than Q'; 'P © Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q'; 'P ★ Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q'; 'P @ Q' means 'P is equal to Q'. Statement: L % Z & U ★ A ★ H @ W Conclusions: I. Z % A II. W @ L Which conclusion(s) follow? intermediate
  • A Only conclusion II is true
  • B Neither conclusion I nor II is true
  • C Both conclusions I and II are true
  • D Only conclusion I is true
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Why:

Decode first: L > Z < U ≤ A ≤ H = W; I is Z > A, II is W = L. I: Z > A is not certain: we only know Z < A (Z < U ≤ A). II: W = L is not certain: the signs between W and L point both ways (W = H ≥ A ≥ U > Z < L).

Q63 'P @ Q' means 'P is greater than Q'; 'P ★ Q' means 'P is smaller than Q'; 'P % Q' means 'P is either greater than or equal to Q'; 'P & Q' means 'P is either smaller than or equal to Q'; 'P # Q' means 'P is equal to Q'. Statement: K ★ V ★ P ★ D @ W Conclusions: I. D ★ K II. V ★ W Which conclusion(s) follow? advanced
  • A Both conclusions I and II are true
  • B Only conclusion I is true
  • C Neither conclusion I nor II is true
  • D Only conclusion II is true
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II is true
Why:

Decode first: K < V < P < D > W; I is D < K, II is V < W. I: D < K is not certain: we only know D > K (D > P > V > K). II: V < W is not certain: the signs between V and W point both ways (V < P < D > W).

Q64 Statements: Some mirrors are pots. All mirrors are horses. Conclusions: I. All pots are mirrors. II. Some pots are mirrors. Which conclusion(s) follow? beginner
  • A Only conclusion I follows
  • B Both conclusions I and II follow
  • C Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • D Only conclusion II follows
Show answer
Answer: Only conclusion II follows
Why:

I does not follow: a diagram where "some pots are not mirrors" also fits the statements. II follows: it is true in every Venn diagram that fits the statements.

Q65 Statements: All erasers are parrots. No parrots are lamps. Conclusions: I. Some parrots are not lamps. II. Some erasers are not parrots. Which conclusion(s) follow? intermediate
  • A Only conclusion I follows
  • B Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • C Only conclusion II follows
  • D Both conclusions I and II follow
Show answer
Answer: Only conclusion I follows
Why:

I follows: it is true in every Venn diagram that fits the statements. II does not follow: it is false in every diagram that fits the statements, because it contradicts them.

Q66 Statements: Some keys are erasers. All erasers are lamps. Conclusions: I. No keys are lamps. II. No keys are erasers. Which conclusion(s) follow? advanced
  • A Either conclusion I or II follows
  • B Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • C Only conclusion I follows
  • D Only conclusion II follows
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Why:

I does not follow: it is false in every diagram that fits the statements, because it contradicts them. II does not follow: it is false in every diagram that fits the statements, because it contradicts them.

Q67 Statements: Some parrots are pencils. All pencils are gates. Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not gates. II. No pencils are gates. Which conclusion(s) follow? beginner
  • A Only conclusion I follows
  • B Only conclusion II follows
  • C Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • D Either conclusion I or II follows
Show answer
Answer: Neither conclusion I nor II follows
Why:

I does not follow: it is false in every diagram that fits the statements, because it contradicts them. II does not follow: it is false in every diagram that fits the statements, because it contradicts them.

Q68 Which diagram best represents the relationship among Clouds, Lions and Spoons? ![Four Venn diagrams: (1) two overlapping circles and one apart; (2) two separate circles inside a big one; (3) a chain of three circles; (4) three separate circles.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-venn-3.svg) intermediate
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 4
Why:

No two of them have anything in common: three separate circles. That is diagram (4).

Q69 Which diagram best represents the relationship among Stationery, Pencils and Erasers? ![Four Venn diagrams: (1) two separate circles inside a big one; (2) two overlapping circles inside a big one; (3) one circle inside another and a third apart; (4) three circles one inside another.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-venn-4.svg) advanced
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 1
Why:

Pencils and erasers both lie inside stationery, but none of the pencils are erasers: two separate circles inside a big one. That is diagram (1).

Q70 The figure shows the number of students in each group. How many are in both the "Sing" and "Swim" circles but not in the "Dance" circle? ![Three overlapping circles labelled Swim, Sing, Dance, with these numbers: Swim: 37; Sing: 3; Dance: 4; Swim+Sing: 19; Swim+Dance: 35; Sing+Dance: 14; Swim+Sing+Dance: 17.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-v3-5.svg) beginner
  • A 14
  • B 36
  • C 17
  • D 19
Show answer
Answer: 19
Why:

This is a single region of the figure, so read its number directly: 19. Adding the overlapping regions too is the usual mistake.

Q71 The figure shows the number of students in each group. How many of them are counted in exactly two of the three circles? ![Three overlapping circles labelled Cricket, Football, Hockey, with these numbers: Cricket: 5; Football: 31; Hockey: 18; Cricket+Football: 25; Cricket+Hockey: 34; Football+Hockey: 23; Cricket+Football+Hockey: 26.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-v3-6.svg) intermediate
  • A 82
  • B 57
  • C 108
  • D 26
Show answer
Answer: 82
Why:

Add the right regions: 25 + 34 + 23 = 82.

Q72 Each question has two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer it. $x$ is a whole number from 1 to 60. What is the value of $x$? I. Half of $x$ is 28. II. $x$ is greater than 52 and less than 60. advanced
  • A Statement I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
  • B Either statement alone is sufficient
  • C Both together are sufficient, but neither alone is
  • D Even both together are not sufficient
Show answer
Answer: Statement I alone is sufficient, but II alone is not
Why:

Statement I alone: the answer must be 56, so it is sufficient. Statement II alone: the answer could be any of 7 possibilities, such as 53 and 54, so it is not sufficient.

Q73 Each question has two statements. Decide whether the data in the statements are sufficient to answer it. $x$ is a whole number from 1 to 60. What is the value of $x$? I. When $x$ is divided by 8, the remainder is 4. II. The sum of the digits of $x$ is 8. beginner
  • A Statement II alone is sufficient, but I alone is not
  • B Either statement alone is sufficient
  • C Both together are sufficient, but neither alone is
  • D Even both together are not sufficient
Show answer
Answer: Both together are sufficient, but neither alone is
Why:

Statement I alone: the answer could be any of 8 possibilities, such as 4 and 12, so it is not sufficient. Statement II alone: the answer could be any of 6 possibilities, such as 8 and 17, so it is not sufficient. Both together: the answer must be 44, so they are sufficient.

Q74 What is the smaller angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 11:24? intermediate
  • A 177°
  • B 162°
  • C 198°
  • D 174°
Show answer
Answer: 162°
Why:

θ = |30H − 5.5M| = |30 × 11 − 5.5 × 24| = 198°; the smaller angle is 360° − 198° = 162°.

Q75 At what time between 2 and 3 o'clock will the hands of a clock coincide? advanced
  • A $15\frac{10}{11}$ minutes past 2
  • B 10 minutes past 2
  • C $10\frac{10}{11}$ minutes past 2
  • D 11 minutes past 2
Show answer
Answer: $10\frac{10}{11}$ minutes past 2
Why:

The minute hand gains 5.5° a minute and must make up 30 × 2 = 60°: 60 ÷ 5.5 = $10\frac{10}{11}$ minutes past 2.

Q76 What is the smaller angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 6:20? beginner
  • A 290°
  • B 60°
  • C 85°
  • D 70°
Show answer
Answer: 70°
Why:

θ = |30H − 5.5M| = |30 × 6 − 5.5 × 20| = 70°.

Q77 24 November 2017 was a Friday. What day of the week was 24 November 2018? intermediate
  • A Saturday
  • B Sunday
  • C Friday
  • D Thursday
Show answer
Answer: Saturday
Why:

The year between them has 365 days (no 29 February in between), giving 1 odd day: Friday + 1 = Saturday.

Q78 The calendar for the year 2008 will be the same as the calendar for which year? advanced
  • A 2013
  • B 2036
  • C 2014
  • D 2019
Show answer
Answer: 2036
Why:

A calendar repeats when 1 January falls on the same day and both years are leap years. Adding odd days year by year (1 for an ordinary year, 2 for a leap year) first reaches a multiple of 7 at 2036.

Q79 The calendar for the year 2006 will be the same as the calendar for which year? beginner
  • A 2034
  • B 2011
  • C 2017
  • D 2012
Show answer
Answer: 2017
Why:

A calendar repeats when 1 January falls on the same day and both years are ordinary years. Adding odd days year by year (1 for an ordinary year, 2 for a leap year) first reaches a multiple of 7 at 2017.

Q80 What is the smaller angle between the two hands of the clock shown? ![A clock face with numbers 1 to 12; the hour hand is just past 12 and the minute hand points to minute 25.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-clk-7.svg) intermediate
  • A 167.5°
  • B 150°
  • C 222.5°
  • D 137.5°
Show answer
Answer: 137.5°
Why:

The clock shows 12:25. θ = |30 × 0 − 5.5 × 25| = 137.5°.

Q81 Choose the correct water image of RF2Z when the water surface MN is below it. ![The text RF2Z with a horizontal water line below it. Answers: (1) Z2FR, each character flipped sideways; (2) RF2Z, each character upside down; (3) Z2FR, each character upside down and flipped sideways; (4) Z2FR, each character upside down.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-mw-8.svg) advanced
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 2
Why:

In a water image, the order stays and each character turns upside down. Only figure (2) shows both changes; the others show the other image or half the change.

Q82 In a mirror, a wall clock appears to show 10:12. What is the actual time? beginner
  • A 1:48
  • B 2:48
  • C 12:48
  • D 8:18
Show answer
Answer: 1:48
Why:

Clock time + mirror time = 12:00. 11:60 − 10:12 = 1:48.

Q83 In a mirror, a wall clock appears to show 2:17. What is the actual time? intermediate
  • A 8:43
  • B 9:43
  • C 4:13
  • D 10:43
Show answer
Answer: 9:43
Why:

Clock time + mirror time = 12:00. 11:60 − 2:17 = 9:43.

Q84 Three different positions of the same die are shown. Which number is on the face opposite to 3? ![Positions of one die: I top 2, front 3, right 6; II top 3, front 2, right 4; III top 5, front 3, right 4.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-dice-9.svg) advanced
  • A 6
  • B 4
  • C 1
  • D 2
Show answer
Answer: 1
Why:

A face that touches 3 cannot be opposite it. 3 touches 2, 4, 5, 6: four faces. The only one left is 1. The "opposite faces add to 7" rule does not hold for this die.

Q85 Two different positions of the same die are shown. Which number is on the face opposite to 6? ![Positions of one die: I top 1, front 6, right 3; II top 6, front 5, right 4.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-dice-10.svg) beginner
  • A 5
  • B 4
  • C 1
  • D 2
Show answer
Answer: 2
Why:

A face that touches 6 cannot be opposite it. 6 touches 1, 3, 4, 5: four faces. The only one left is 2. The "opposite faces add to 7" rule does not hold for this die.

Q86 Count the triangles in the figure. ![Line figure: a grid of 2 × 2 squares with diagonals: cell (column 1, row 1): diagonal from top left to bottom right; cell (column 2, row 1): both diagonals; cell (column 2, row 2): diagonal from top left to bottom right.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-tri-11.svg) intermediate
  • A 16
  • B 14
  • C 18
  • D 8
Show answer
Answer: 16
Why:

Count by size, smallest first, and include the triangles made of several pieces: 16 in all. Counting only the 8 smallest pieces is the usual mistake.

Q87 Select the correct water image of the given figure when the water surface MN is below it. ![A figure of three small shapes in the corners of a square, with a horizontal water line below it; answers: (1) flipped left to right; (2) turned through 180°; (3) flipped top to bottom; (4) turned a quarter clockwise.](/syllabus/veda-skills-0-logical-reasoning-en/ch19/q19-shp-12.svg) advanced
  • A 1
  • B 2
  • C 3
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 3
Why:

In a water image, top and bottom swap; left and right stay. Figure (3) is the figure flipped top to bottom; the others are flipped left to right, turned through 180°, turned a quarter clockwise.

Q88 Seven teachers, Bina, Chetan, Dev, Isha, Jaya, Mohan and Yash, sit around a circular table at equal distances, all facing away from the centre. They are not necessarily seated in this order. Chetan sits third to the right of Bina. Jaya sits third to the right of Dev. Only one person sits between Jaya and Mohan when counted from the right of Jaya. Yash sits third to the left of Mohan. How many persons sit between Jaya and Isha when counted from the right of Jaya? intermediate
  • A 3
  • B 2
  • C 1
  • D 4
Show answer
Answer: 2
Why:

Clockwise (all facing outward): Bina, Yash, Jaya, Chetan, Mohan, Isha, Dev.

Going to the right of Jaya, Isha is the third person, so 2 persons sit between them. (The other way round there are 3.)

Q89 Seven teachers, Bina, Chetan, Dev, Isha, Jaya, Mohan and Yash, sit around a circular table at equal distances, all facing away from the centre. They are not necessarily seated in this order. Chetan sits third to the right of Bina. Jaya sits third to the right of Dev. Only one person sits between Jaya and Mohan when counted from the right of Jaya. Yash sits third to the left of Mohan. If Isha and Yash interchange their seats, who will sit immediately to the right of Isha? intermediate
  • A Mohan
  • B Dev
  • C Jaya
  • D Bina
Show answer
Answer: Jaya
Why:

Clockwise (all facing outward): Bina, Yash, Jaya, Chetan, Mohan, Isha, Dev.

Isha moves to Yash's old seat. The seat immediately to the right of that seat now holds Jaya.

Q90 Seven teachers, Bina, Chetan, Dev, Isha, Jaya, Mohan and Yash, sit around a circular table at equal distances, all facing away from the centre. They are not necessarily seated in this order. Chetan sits third to the right of Bina. Jaya sits third to the right of Dev. Only one person sits between Jaya and Mohan when counted from the right of Jaya. Yash sits third to the left of Mohan. What is the position of Isha with respect to Jaya? intermediate
  • A Fourth to the right
  • B Second to the right
  • C Third to the left
  • D Third to the right
Show answer
Answer: Third to the right
Why:

Clockwise (all facing outward): Bina, Yash, Jaya, Chetan, Mohan, Isha, Dev.

Stand in Jaya's place and use Jaya's own left and right: Isha is third to the right of Jaya.

Q91 Six boxes, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are kept one above another in a single stack (not necessarily in this order). Position 1 is the bottom box. Each box has a different colour: black, pink, green, red, yellow and blue. Box R is fifth from the bottom. Only one box is kept between box P and the yellow box. The blue box is kept immediately above box P. Only one box is kept between box U and box S, and box U is above box S. The green box is at an odd-numbered position from the bottom. The black box is kept somewhere above box Q. Box U is green. The red box is kept immediately above box R. Which of the following combinations is correct? advanced
  • A Box S – First from the bottom – pink
  • B Box P – Fifth from the bottom – black
  • C Box T – Sixth from the bottom – yellow
  • D Box Q – Third from the bottom – yellow
Show answer
Answer: Box S – First from the bottom – pink
Why:

Sixth from the bottom: T (red); Fifth from the bottom: R (blue); Fourth from the bottom: P (black); Third from the bottom: U (green); Second from the bottom: Q (yellow); First from the bottom: S (pink).

Only this one matches the final table: Box S is at position 1 from the bottom with pink.

Q92 Six boxes, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are kept one above another in a single stack (not necessarily in this order). Position 1 is the bottom box. Each box has a different colour: black, pink, green, red, yellow and blue. Box R is fifth from the bottom. Only one box is kept between box P and the yellow box. The blue box is kept immediately above box P. Only one box is kept between box U and box S, and box U is above box S. The green box is at an odd-numbered position from the bottom. The black box is kept somewhere above box Q. Box U is green. The red box is kept immediately above box R. What is the colour of box Q? advanced
  • A Blue
  • B Yellow
  • C Green
  • D Pink
Show answer
Answer: Yellow
Why:

Sixth from the bottom: T (red); Fifth from the bottom: R (blue); Fourth from the bottom: P (black); Third from the bottom: U (green); Second from the bottom: Q (yellow); First from the bottom: S (pink).

Box Q is at position 2 from the bottom, and the box there is yellow.

Q93 Six boxes, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are kept one above another in a single stack (not necessarily in this order). Position 1 is the bottom box. Each box has a different colour: black, pink, green, red, yellow and blue. Box R is fifth from the bottom. Only one box is kept between box P and the yellow box. The blue box is kept immediately above box P. Only one box is kept between box U and box S, and box U is above box S. The green box is at an odd-numbered position from the bottom. The black box is kept somewhere above box Q. Box U is green. The red box is kept immediately above box R. Which box is kept immediately below the green box? advanced
  • A Box U
  • B Box S
  • C Box Q
  • D Box P
Show answer
Answer: Box Q
Why:

Sixth from the bottom: T (red); Fifth from the bottom: R (blue); Fourth from the bottom: P (black); Third from the bottom: U (green); Second from the bottom: Q (yellow); First from the bottom: S (pink).

Green is at position 3 from the bottom; one place down is position 2 from the bottom: Box Q.

Q94 Assertion (A): In the series 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, the next term is 127. Reason (R): Each term is twice the previous term plus 1. beginner
  • A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C A is true but R is false
  • D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Why:

63 × 2 + 1 = 127, and the rule fits every term, so R explains A.

Q95 Assertion (A): If Q is to the north-east of P, then P is to the south-west of Q. Reason (R): Opposite directions are 90° apart. intermediate
  • A Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  • B Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • C A is true but R is false
  • D A is false but R is true
Show answer
Answer: A is true but R is false
Why:

A is true: looking back reverses the direction. R is false: opposite directions are 180° apart.

Q96 Which of these are true? 1. The opposite letter of K is P. 2. The 10th letter from the right end of the alphabet is Q. intermediate
  • A 1 only
  • B 2 only
  • C Both 1 and 2
  • D Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: Both 1 and 2
Why:

K = 11 and 27 − 11 = 16 = P. From the right, 10th = 27 − 10 = 17 = Q. Both are true.

Important short questions (4)

Find the next term of 5, 11, 23, 47, ? and check your rule on every term.

Each term is ×2 + 1: 5 → 11 → 23 → 47 → 95. The differences 6, 12, 24 double too, giving 47 + 48 = 95.

In a code, MANGO is written as NBOHP. How is GRAPE written? Explain.

Each letter moves one place forward: G→H, R→S, A→B, P→Q, E→F, so HSBQF.

Pointing to a woman, Ajay said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to Ajay?

The only daughter of Ajay's mother is Ajay's sister. The woman is his sister's daughter, his niece.

Find the angle between the hands of a clock at 7:20.

|30 × 7 − 5.5 × 20| = |210 − 110| = 100°.

Long answer questions (1)

Explain how you would solve a five-person row puzzle with clues, using the example of this topic, and how one drawing answers several questions.

Start with the clue that fixes a seat: Chetan at an end with Bina two places to his right puts Chetan at the left end. Chain the clues that hang on him: Bina 3rd, Dev 4th. Use the negative clue last: Esha not at an end gives 2nd, so Asha is 5th.

Once the row is drawn, questions on neighbours, ends and positions are read straight from it, so three questions cost little more than one.

Flashcards (14)

Position of T in the alphabet?
20
Opposite letter of H?
S
Next term: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
42
Next term: 1, 8, 27, 64, ?
125
Mother's brother's son is your?
Cousin
Facing east, turn right twice. Now facing?
West
Morning shadow points which way?
West
Some A are B: does "some B are A" follow?
Yes
A > B ≥ C: is A > C certain?
Yes
Angle between the hands at 3:30?
75°
Odd days in a leap year?
2
Mirror time of 9:15?
2:45
Triangles in a square with both diagonals?
8
People in a row: 7th from left, 11th from right?
17

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Veda Skills Logical Reasoning Unit 19 — frequently asked questions

Find the time budget per question for 35 questions in 20 minutes, and say how you would use it.

1200 ÷ 35 ≈ 34 seconds. Spend about 20 seconds on one-liners so that puzzle questions can get about 60 seconds each.

Name three features that make a puzzle set quick to solve.

Few people, one facing direction (or one variable), and definite clues that fix positions.

Under +1 and −0.25 marking, is a guess between three options worth it? Show the working.

Expected gain = 1/3 − 0.25 × 2/3 = 0.333 − 0.167 = 0.167 marks. Yes, if it takes only a few seconds.

Find the next term of 5, 11, 23, 47, ? and check your rule on every term.

Each term is ×2 + 1: 5 → 11 → 23 → 47 → 95. The differences 6, 12, 24 double too, giving 47 + 48 = 95.

In a code, MANGO is written as NBOHP. How is GRAPE written? Explain.

Each letter moves one place forward: G→H, R→S, A→B, P→Q, E→F, so HSBQF.

Pointing to a woman, Ajay said, "Her mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to Ajay?

The only daughter of Ajay's mother is Ajay's sister. The woman is his sister's daughter, his niece.

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