Metals and Non-metals · Class 10 Science: 216 MCQs with answers

Q1. The most ductile metal is:

Q2. Metals that can be cut with a knife include:

Q3. The non-metal that conducts electricity is:

Q4. Define malleability and ductility with one example of each.

Q5. Give reasons: (a) bells are made of metals, (b) cooking vessels are made of metals.

Q6. Name: (a) a liquid metal, (b) a liquid non-metal, (c) a non-metal with lustre, (d) a non-metal that conducts electricity.

Q7. Why are sodium and potassium stored under kerosene?

Q8. Why are electric wires made of copper but covered with plastic?

Q9. State two uses each that depend on: (a) the malleability of metals, (b) the ductility of metals.

Q10. Which pair of oxides is amphoteric?

Q11. Which metal reacts with hot water but not cold water?

Q12. Iron reacts with water only as:

Q13. Which metal does NOT react with dilute HCl?

Q14. The most reactive metal among these is:

Q15. The least reactive of these metals is:

Q16. Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu happens because zinc is:

Q17. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?

Q18. Write equations for the reactions of (a) sodium with cold water, (b) iron with steam.

Q19. Why do calcium and magnesium float when they react with water?

Q20. Why does copper not liberate hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid while zinc does?

Q21. What is aqua regia? State its composition and one property.

Q22. Sodium's electronic configuration is:

Q23. After forming Na⁺, sodium's configuration becomes:

Q24. Chloride ion Cl⁻ has the configuration:

Q25. Molten ionic compounds conduct because:

Q26. Why do atoms combine? Explain with reference to noble gases.

Q27. Show the formation of sodium chloride from its atoms, with configurations.

Q28. Show the formation of magnesium chloride by electron transfer.

Q29. Define cation and anion with one example of each from this chapter.

Q30. List four general properties of ionic compounds.

Q31. Why do ionic compounds conduct electricity in molten state but not in solid state?

Q32. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

Q33. Consider these statements about the physical properties of metals. I. Malleability is the ability to be beaten into sheets. II. Ductility is the ability to be drawn into wires. III. Sonority is the ability to ring when struck. IV. Every metal shows all three properties equally well. Which statements are correct?

Q34. Which statement best explains why mercury and bromine are both mentioned as exceptions when metals and non-metals are described?

Q35. Four metals are compared for electrical conduction. Which is the BEST conductor of the four?

Q36. A school bell rings clearly when struck while a wooden block gives only a dull thud. Which statement explains this?

Q37. A yellow solid element shatters into pieces when hammered instead of flattening. This shows it is:

Q38. An electric wire has a copper core inside a plastic sleeve. Which statement explains this design?

Q39. Which property is being used when silver is beaten into the paper-thin foil that decorates Indian sweets?

Q40. Which pair are BOTH forms of carbon?

Q41. A metal with a LOW melting point among these is:

Q42. Which is NOT a general property of metals?

Q43. Which metal would you choose for a bulb filament, and why?

Q44. The gallium spoon 'disappears' in hot tea because gallium:

Q45. Which set contains ONLY non-metals?

Q46. A dull, brittle solid that does NOT conduct is most likely:

Q47. A shiny element conducts electricity. It:

Q48. Which statement is TRUE?

Q49. Copper is preferred over silver for household wiring because copper:

Q50. School bell rings; a wooden block thuds. The property difference is:

Q51. Which element would ring when struck AND conduct heat well?

Q52. Which use exploits BOTH ductility and electrical conduction?

Q53. Which is the odd one out (by class)?

Q54. Non-metals used in fertilisers (N, P) show that non-metals:

Q55. 'Hardness cannot decide whether an element is a metal.' Justify with two examples.

Q56. Compare diamond and graphite in three properties, noting what they have in common.

Q57. Which physical properties would you test to check whether a given shiny element is a metal? Why is the result still not conclusive?

Q58. Why is tungsten used for bulb filaments and mercury in thermometers?

Q59. Compare metals and non-metals across seven physical properties in a systematic way, and then list the important exceptions on each side, concluding with why classification finally rests on chemical properties.

Q60. Four metals are placed in cold water: potassium, calcium, magnesium and iron. Which reacts MOST violently?

Q61. The vigour of reaction with dilute HCl decreases as:

Q62. Hydrogen is generally NOT evolved with nitric acid because HNO₃:

Q63. Very dilute HNO₃ DOES give hydrogen with:

Q64. Which will show NO reaction?

Q65. Fe + 2AgNO₃ → Fe(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag shows:

Q66. Which oxide would dissolve in NaOH solution?

Q67. Aluminium vessels resist corrosion because:

Q68. The reaction 2K + 2H₂O → 2KOH + H₂ is dangerous because:

Q69. Which metal would you NEVER find free (native) in nature?

Q70. Which is found in nature in the free state?

Q71. The colour changes when iron is left in copper sulphate include:

Q72. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples with one equation each showing both behaviours for one of them.

Q73. Why is hydrogen gas not evolved when metals react with nitric acid? State the exception.

Q74. Design a short activity to show that zinc is more reactive than copper.

Q75. Why is aluminium such a widely used metal despite being reactive? Name the process that improves this property.

Q76. Arrange the following in decreasing order of reactivity and justify with one displacement example: Cu, Mg, Fe, Zn.

Q77. Assertion (A): The bond in sodium chloride is called an ionic bond. Reason (R): It is the strong electrostatic attraction between the oppositely charged ions formed by the transfer of electrons.

Q78. The formula of sodium oxide is:

Q79. Calcium (2,8,8,2) combines with chlorine to give:

Q80. Ionic compounds in the solid state are actually:

Q81. NaCl's cubic crystals reflect:

Q82. Ionic crystals shatter when struck because:

Q83. Which is a test you could do at home to distinguish salt from sugar solutions?

Q84. The energy released when the oppositely charged ions come together is why ionic bonds are:

Q85. K (2,8,8,1) and Br (2,8,18,7) will form:

Q86. The number of Cl⁻ ions around the formula of AlCl₃ is:

Q87. Which property does NOT belong to ionic compounds?

Q88. An element X (2,8,2) combines with element Y (2,7). Derive the formula of the compound and predict two of its properties.

Q89. Why is sodium chloride NOT described as a molecule?

Q90. A white crystalline solid dissolves in water and its solution conducts electricity; the solid itself does not conduct. What type of compound is it? Justify.

Q91. Stainless steel resists rusting although ordinary steel does not. It is made by alloying iron with:

Q92. Which statement correctly describes an amalgam?

Q93. Solder is chosen for wire joints because its melting point is:

Q94. Carbon CANNOT reduce which oxide?

Q95. The FIRST step after mining any ore is:

Q96. ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂ is an example of:

Q97. 2ZnS + 3O₂ → 2ZnO + 2SO₂ is an example of:

Q98. In ZnO + C → Zn + CO, the reducing agent is:

Q99. In the thermite reaction, aluminium acts as:

Q100. 24-carat gold is not used for ornaments because it is:

Q101. 22-carat gold contains gold and other metal in the ratio:

Q102. One gram of gold can be drawn into a wire about two kilometres long. Which property does this demonstrate, and which metal shares the top of that list?

Q103. Consider these exceptions to the usual behaviour of metals and non-metals. I. Diamond, a non-metal, is the hardest natural substance. II. Graphite, a non-metal, conducts electricity. III. Sodium, a metal, can be cut with a knife. IV. Iodine, a non-metal, is lustrous. Which statements are correct?

Q104. Assertion (A): Diamond and graphite are both pure carbon, yet one is the hardest natural substance and the other is soft enough to write with. Reason (R): The same atoms joined in different arrangements give substances with entirely different properties.

Q105. A student is given a shiny element and told to decide whether it is a metal. Which further test settles the question most reliably?

Q106. Consider these uses and the properties behind them. I. Cooking vessels use the good heat conduction of metals. II. Electric wires use ductility and electrical conduction together. III. Aluminium foil uses malleability. IV. Handles of cooking vessels are metallic for the same reason as the vessel. Which statements are correct?

Q107. Nitrogen and phosphorus are non-metals, yet both are essential ingredients of fertilisers. What does this show?

Q108. Which of these four choices of material for a job uses the WRONG property?

Q109. Graphite is used in electrolysis as electrodes because it:

Q110. Assertion: Sodium is stored under kerosene. Reason: Its freshly cut surface reacts instantly with air's oxygen and moisture.

Q111. Assertion: Physical properties can misclassify elements. Reason: Graphite conducts although it is a non-metal.

Q112. An unknown element X is soft, cuttable, and its fresh surface dulls in air within seconds. X is most likely:

Q113. Element Y shatters when hammered but its another form conducts electricity. Y is:

Q114. Case: A jeweller needs a metal that stays shiny for decades and beats into intricate leaves. Best pick:

Q115. Case: An engineer needs a material for crucible tongs that must NOT soften at high heat. She avoids:

Q116. Mercury in thermometers is chosen because it is:

Q117. For each of the following uses, name a suitable element/material and justify the choice through its physical properties: (a) filament of a bulb, (b) electrical wiring of a house, (c) covering of those wires, (d) thermometer liquid, (e) electrodes in electrolysis, (f) decorating sweets.

Q118. Design a set of four bench tests a student can perform to gather evidence on whether an unknown solid element is a metal or a non-metal, state the expected results for each class, and explain — using three specific elements — why the final verdict depends on chemical evidence.

Q119. 'The uses of metals in daily life are simply their physical properties put to work.' Support this statement with SIX distinct examples spanning six different properties, including one exception-based use.

Q120. Consider these statements about metal oxides. I. Metal oxides are generally basic. II. Aluminium oxide reacts with both acids and bases. III. Zinc oxide behaves in the same way as aluminium oxide. IV. Every metal oxide is basic and none reacts with a base. Which statements are correct?

Q121. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene rather than in a stoppered bottle in air?

Q122. Which of these best explains why copper does not release hydrogen from dilute hydrochloric acid while zinc does?

Q123. Aqua regia dissolves even gold, which no single acid will attack. It is made by mixing:

Q124. A customer brings a chain sold as pure gold to be tested. It fizzes when a drop of dilute nitric acid is put on it. The correct conclusion is:

Q125. Consider these observations when metals are heated in air. I. Magnesium burns with a dazzling white flame. II. Copper does not burn but gets a black coating. III. Iron filings burn with sparks when sprinkled into a flame. IV. Gold develops a black coating in the same way as copper. Which statements are correct?

Q126. Assertion (A): Aluminium is used for window frames and cooking vessels although it is a fairly reactive metal. Reason (R): A thin, tough layer of aluminium oxide forms on its surface and protects the metal underneath from further attack.

Q127. Calcium dropped into cold water fizzes gently and the lump floats. Which statement explains the floating?

Q128. What is the best explanation of why the reactivity series is arranged from displacement experiments rather than simply decided in advance?

Q129. Why is an aluminium article made the ANODE during anodising?

Q130. An iron nail dipped in a certain metal's salt solution shows NO change at all. The metal in the solution could be:

Q131. Which experiment CONFIRMS zinc is above iron?

Q132. Assertion: Gold ornaments stay shiny for generations. Reason: Gold lies at the bottom of the reactivity series and resists air, water and single acids.

Q133. Assertion: Aluminium is used in cookware although it is a reactive metal. Reason: Its surface oxide layer protects it from further reaction.

Q134. Four metals: A displaces B from its salt; C displaces A; B displaces D. The reactivity order is:

Q135. A metal X burns in air with dazzling white light; its oxide dissolves in water giving a solution that turns red litmus blue. X is:

Q136. Metal Y reacts with steam but not hot water, and with dilute HCl it fizzes moderately. Y could be:

Q137. Case: A jeweller's 'gold' chain fizzes in dilute nitric acid. Conclusion:

Q138. Case: Hot iron pipes carrying steam slowly accumulate a dark magnetic coating. The chemistry is:

Q139. Which statement about the series' extremes is TRUE?

Q140. Zinc granules are added to four solutions: CuSO₄, FeSO₄, MgSO₄, AgNO₃. Zinc will displace metal from:

Q141. Describe how metals react with oxygen across the reactivity series — from potassium to gold — including equations, the nature of the oxides formed, the amphoteric exceptions, and the storage/protection consequences (kerosene, oxide armour).

Q142. Describe the reactions of metals with water across the series, with equations and observations, and explain how the water test alone can roughly rank an unknown set of metals (Na, Ca, Mg, Fe, Cu).

Q143. Explain, with a complete experimental design, how displacement reactions establish the reactivity series. Use four metals (Mg, Zn, Fe, Cu) and their salt solutions, present the expected result matrix, and derive the order.

Q144. Solve this identification puzzle, explaining each inference: metal W reacts with cold water gently and floats; metal X gives no reaction with dilute HCl but dissolves in aqua regia; metal Y reacts with steam only and its oxide is attracted by a magnet; metal Z's oxide dissolves both in HCl and in NaOH. Identify W, X, Y, Z, write one equation for each, and place all four in reactivity order.

Q145. Consider these statements about why atoms combine. I. Atoms react to reach the electron arrangement of the nearest noble gas. II. Metals with one to three outer electrons tend to lose them. III. Non-metals with five to seven outer electrons tend to gain them. IV. Noble gases react readily for the same reason. Which statements are correct?

Q146. Sodium has the arrangement 2,8,1 and chlorine 2,8,7. When they react, which statement describes what happens?

Q147. Why does a metal form a POSITIVE ion while a non-metal forms a negative one?

Q148. Magnesium has the arrangement 2,8,2. In forming magnesium chloride and magnesium oxide, magnesium:

Q149. Consider these properties of ionic compounds. I. They are hard, brittle crystalline solids. II. They have high melting and boiling points. III. They generally dissolve in water. IV. They conduct electricity in the solid state. Which statements are correct?

Q150. Common salt does not melt in a Bunsen flame, though its melting point is 1074 K. Which statement explains the high value?

Q151. Which is the correct explanation of why ionic compounds generally dissolve in water but not in kerosene or petrol?

Q152. A student finds that solid common salt does not light a bulb in a test circuit, but the same salt dissolved in water does. The best explanation is:

Q153. Aluminium forms Al³⁺ ions and oxygen forms O²⁻ ions. The formula of aluminium oxide is:

Q154. Element P has the arrangement 2,8,1 and element Q has 2,8,7. Which set of properties will their compound have?

Q155. How many electrons are transferred per formula unit when magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide?

Q156. Which statement best explains why magnesium oxide has a much higher melting point than sodium chloride, though both are ionic?

Q157. Consider these statements about the structure of an ionic solid. I. The ions are arranged in a giant repeating lattice. II. There are no separate molecules in the crystal. III. The regular outward shape of a salt crystal reflects that inner order. IV. Each formula unit exists as an independent particle. Which statements are correct?

Q158. Which of these pairs of elements will form an IONIC compound?

Q159. Aluminium (2,8,3) with chlorine forms:

Q160. Which of these best explains why the formula of an ionic compound is decided by the charges on its ions?

Q161. Assertion: Molten NaCl conducts electricity. Reason: In the molten state its ions are free to move.

Q162. Assertion: Ionic compounds have low melting points. Reason: Ionic bonds are weak forces.

Q163. Element P (2,8,1) and element Q (2,8,7) combine. The compound's properties will include:

Q164. The compound of P and Q above has the formula:

Q165. Which conducts electricity?

Q166. Case: A white solid melts only in a furnace, dissolves in water, and its solution lights a bulb. It is most likely:

Q167. Case: Substance X dissolves in petrol but not in water and never conducts. X is likely:

Q168. Electrolysis of molten NaCl produces sodium at the cathode because Na⁺ ions:

Q169. What is the best explanation of why an ionic bond is a strong bond?

Q170. Explain the complete formation of an ionic compound using both NaCl and MgO: why the atoms react, the electron transfers with configurations, the resulting ions, the nature of the bond, and why the products are so much more stable than the reactants.

Q171. Account for each property of ionic compounds in terms of the lattice model: hardness, brittleness, high melting point, solubility behaviour, and the conduction rule — and describe one experiment demonstrating the conduction rule.

Q172. Element A has configuration 2,8,8,2 and element B has 2,8,7. (a) Identify the likely elements and their nature. (b) Derive the compound's formula showing electron bookkeeping. (c) Predict FIVE properties of the compound. (d) State what would change if A instead had configuration 2,8,3.

Q173. 'The kitchen salt cellar is a museum of ionic chemistry.' Justify this statement by connecting at least five everyday observations about common salt to the concepts of this topic.

Q174. Consider these statements about minerals and ores. I. A mineral is a naturally occurring compound of a metal. II. An ore is a mineral from which the metal can be got out profitably. III. The earthy impurities mixed with an ore are called gangue. IV. Every mineral is an ore. Which statements are correct?

Q175. Which is the correct explanation of why the FIRST step after mining any ore is concentration?

Q176. Why can carbon not be used to extract sodium, potassium or aluminium from their oxides?

Q177. Three metals are extracted three different ways: mercury by heating its ore alone, zinc by reduction with carbon, and aluminium by electrolysis. The reason for the three different methods is:

Q178. Cinnabar, HgS, is heated in air and mercury is obtained. Which statement describes the two steps correctly?

Q179. Which of these four ore names is paired with the WRONG chemical description?

Q180. Consider these statements about roasting and calcination. I. Roasting heats a sulphide ore in excess air. II. Calcination heats a carbonate ore in limited air. III. Both convert the ore into the metal oxide. IV. Both produce the free metal directly. Which statements are correct?

Q181. Why is a sulphide ore roasted in EXCESS air while a carbonate ore is calcined in LIMITED air?

Q182. In the thermite reaction, Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe, the iron is produced MOLTEN rather than solid. This is because:

Q183. Which statement best explains why the thermite reaction is used to join broken railway tracks on the spot?

Q184. In the electrolytic refining of copper, the impure copper is the anode and a thin pure strip is the cathode. Over time:

Q185. Assertion (A): The anode mud from copper refining is collected carefully rather than thrown away. Reason (R): It contains the less reactive impurities of the original copper, including silver and gold.

Q186. Consider these statements about alloys. I. An alloy is a homogeneous mixture of a metal with other metals or with a non-metal. II. Alloying is done to improve properties such as hardness or resistance to corrosion. III. An alloy generally conducts electricity less well than the pure metal. IV. An alloy is a compound with a fixed chemical formula. Which statements are correct?

Q187. Brass, bronze and solder are made by alloying respectively:

Q188. Which of these best explains why a metal is alloyed even though alloying makes it a poorer conductor?

Q189. Why is solder, rather than either of the pure metals it is made from, used for joining electrical wires?

Q190. Why is iron always alloyed with a little carbon before being used for construction?

Q191. Why is sodium obtained by electrolysing MOLTEN sodium chloride rather than its solution in water?

Q192. Which sequence correctly extracts zinc from zinc blende?

Q193. Consider these statements about gold used for jewellery. I. Pure gold is 24 carat. II. Pure gold is too soft to hold a shape. III. 22-carat gold is 22 parts gold to 2 parts of another metal. IV. Alloying makes the gold heavier as well as harder. Which statements are correct?

Q194. What is the best explanation of why the whole of metallurgy follows the same three stages — concentration, reduction, refining?

Q195. Assertion: Aluminium is extracted by electrolysis although it is cheaper to use carbon. Reason: Carbon cannot reduce aluminium oxide because Al binds oxygen more strongly.

Q196. Assertion: Anode mud is carefully collected in copper refineries. Reason: It contains valuable silver and gold impurities.

Q197. During copper refining, the mass of the cathode:

Q198. Case: A railway crew mixes a dark powder in a crucible, ignites it, and pours glowing liquid metal into a rail gap. The powder was:

Q199. Case: A goldsmith's '24-carat' bangle bends easily in the customer's hand. The customer should conclude:

Q200. Which alloy-use pairing is WRONG?