Human Body Anatomy: 254 flashcards
Showing 200 of 254 flashcards from this kit.
1. What is the main function of the brain?
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The brain is the control center of the body; it controls thoughts, movements, and reflexes.
2. Which organ pumps blood throughout the body?
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The heart pumps blood through blood vessels.
3. Name the five sense organs and the sense each provides.
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Eyes (sight), ears (hearing), nose (smell), tongue (taste), and skin (touch).
4. What is the difference between external and internal body parts?
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External parts are visible (like skin, eyes, arms), while internal parts are hidden but vital (like heart, lungs, brain).
5. What does the skeletal system do?
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It provides support and protection, like the skull protecting the brain.
6. What is the role of the respiratory system?
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The lungs take in oxygen and release carbon dioxide.
7. How does the digestive system help the body?
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The stomach and intestines break down food into energy the body can use.
8. What does the nervous system include?
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The brain, spinal cord, and nerves; it controls thoughts, movements, and reflexes.
9. Why is it important to know your body parts?
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It helps you describe symptoms to a doctor accurately and make healthy choices.
10. True or False: The heart is the center of thinking and emotions.
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False. The brain is the control center; the heart only pumps blood.
11. Which system delivers oxygen and nutrients to cells?
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The circulatory system (heart and blood vessels).
12. What are the main external parts of the body mentioned?
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Head, arms, legs, torso, skin, eyes, etc.
13. How do body systems work together?
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They cooperate; e.g., eating uses digestion, circulation, and muscles for energy.
14. What is the function of muscles?
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Muscles enable movement; some, like the heart, work automatically.
15. How many vertebrae make up the cervical spine?
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Exactly 7 vertebrae (C1–C7).
16. What is the function of the epiglottis?
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It is a flap that closes over the trachea during swallowing to prevent food and liquid from entering the lungs.
17. Which tube lies in front: the trachea or the esophagus?
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The trachea (windpipe) lies in front of the esophagus.
18. What is the role of the top two cervical vertebrae (C1 and C2)?
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They allow nodding and shaking of the head.
19. Name the major blood vessels in the neck.
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The carotid arteries and jugular veins.
20. What is the function of lymph nodes in the neck?
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They are part of the immune system, filtering infections.
21. What is compartmentalization in the neck?
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The division of the neck into separate compartments by layers of fascia (connective tissue), which helps prevent the spread of infections and aids surgical precision.
22. What is whiplash?
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A common neck injury caused by rapid back-and-forth movement, often in car accidents.
23. What does the spinal cord do in the neck?
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It runs through the cervical vertebrae and carries signals between the brain and the body, protected by the bony spine.
24. What is the larynx and why is it important?
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The larynx (voice box) sits in the neck and is essential for voice production. Damage to its nerves can cause hoarseness or loss of voice.
25. What happens if the epiglottis fails to close properly?
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Food or liquid can enter the trachea, causing choking or coughing. Repeated aspiration can lead to aspiration pneumonia.
26. Why is the neck a priority area in emergency medicine?
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Because a blocked airway or severed blood vessel in the neck can be fatal within minutes.
27. What are the three main bones of the shoulder complex?
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Humerus, scapula, and clavicle (H-S-C).
28. What type of joint is the glenohumeral joint?
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A ball-and-socket joint.
29. Why is the shoulder prone to dislocation?
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Because the glenoid cavity is shallow, offering little bony containment for the humeral head.
30. What is the role of the labrum in the shoulder?
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It deepens the glenoid socket, improving stability.
31. Name the four rotator cuff muscles.
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Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.
32. What is scapulohumeral rhythm?
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The coordinated rotation of the scapula with humeral elevation during arm raising.
33. Which joint connects the clavicle to the acromion of the scapula?
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The acromioclavicular (AC) joint.
34. What is the function of the clavicle in the shoulder complex?
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It acts as a strut, holding the shoulder complex away from the trunk.
35. Which muscle is primarily responsible for arm abduction?
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The deltoid muscle.
36. What is the most commonly dislocated major joint in the body?
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The shoulder (glenohumeral joint).
37. The shoulder complex includes which three joints?
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Glenohumeral, acromioclavicular, and sternoclavicular joints.
38. What is the primary joint of the shoulder?
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The glenohumeral joint, where the humeral head meets the glenoid cavity.
39. What are the three main bones of the arm?
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The humerus (upper arm), radius (thumb side of forearm), and ulna (pinky side of forearm).
40. Which bone of the forearm rotates when you turn your hand?
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The radius. It rotates around the ulna, allowing you to turn your palm up and down.
41. What type of joint is the shoulder?
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A ball-and-socket joint, allowing movement in almost any direction.
42. What type of joint is the elbow?
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A hinge joint, allowing bending and straightening only.
43. Which muscle contracts to bend the elbow?
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The biceps (located at the front of the upper arm).
44. Which muscle contracts to straighten the elbow?
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The triceps (located at the back of the upper arm).
45. What is an antagonistic pair of muscles?
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Two muscles that work opposite each other: one contracts while the other relaxes to produce smooth movement.
46. What is the 'forearm'?
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The lower part of the arm, from the elbow to the wrist.
47. Which bone forms the bony point of the elbow?
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The ulna (specifically the olecranon process).
48. How does the arm act as a lever system?
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Bones act as rods, joints act as fulcrums, and muscles provide the force to move the bones.
49. Why does the shoulder allow more movement than the elbow?
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Because the shoulder is a ball-and-socket joint, while the elbow is a hinge joint. Structure determines function.
50. What movement does the radius perform when you turn a key?
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The radius rotates around the ulna, allowing the wrist and hand to twist.
51. Which sports rely heavily on arm strength and flexibility?
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Swimming, basketball, gymnastics, and tennis, among others.
52. How many bones are in the human hand, and how are they grouped?
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27 bones: 8 carpals (wrist), 5 metacarpals (palm), and 14 phalanges (fingers).
53. What is the function of the carpals?
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They form the wrist and provide flexibility at the base of the hand.
54. What is the role of the metacarpals?
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They make up the palm and connect the wrist to the fingers.
55. How many phalanges are in each finger and thumb?
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Each finger has 3 phalanges (proximal, middle, distal); the thumb has only 2.
56. What does it mean for the thumb to be opposable?
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It can rotate to touch the tips of all other fingers, enabling precision grip.
57. What type of joint is at the base of the thumb, and why is it important?
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A saddle joint (carpometacarpal joint) that allows a wide range of motion, enabling opposition.
58. What is the difference between tendons and ligaments?
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Tendons connect muscle to bone; ligaments connect bone to bone.
59. Where are the muscles that control hand movement located?
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Some are in the forearm (with long tendons extending into the hand), and small intrinsic muscles are in the palm.
60. Why are fingertips so sensitive?
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They have one of the highest concentrations of nerve endings in the body.
61. What is the feedback loop involved in hand movement?
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Brain → nerves → muscles → tendons → bones, with sensory feedback from fingertips adjusting grip.
62. What is carpal tunnel syndrome?
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A common condition affecting the hand, caused by compression of the median nerve in the wrist.
63. How does hand anatomy apply to robotics?
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Engineers study the hand to design prosthetic limbs and robotic grippers that mimic human dexterity.
64. What is the chest (thorax) and what are its primary functions?
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The chest (thorax) is a protective cavity that houses the heart and lungs. It plays a central role in breathing and blood circulation.
65. How many pairs of ribs make up the human rib cage?
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There are 12 pairs of ribs, totaling 24 ribs.
66. Describe the position of the heart in the chest.
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The heart sits slightly to the left of the chest, not exactly in the center.
67. What is the diaphragm and what is its role in breathing?
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The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that contracts and flattens during inhalation, expanding the chest cavity and drawing air into the lungs.
68. What is the sternum and where is it located?
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The sternum is a flat, sword-shaped bone at the front center of the chest, acting as a central anchor for the ribs.
69. What are the intercostal muscles and how do they help breathing?
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The intercostal muscles are located between the ribs and help lift the rib cage upward and outward during inhalation.
70. What is the pericardium?
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The pericardium is a protective sac that encloses the heart.
71. What structures are contained within the chest cavity besides the heart and lungs?
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The chest cavity also contains the trachea, esophagus, and major blood vessels like the aorta.
72. Why do doctors use a stethoscope on the chest?
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Doctors use a stethoscope on the chest to listen to heart and lung sounds, which can reveal problems like heart murmurs or fluid in the lungs.
73. What is the mnemonic 'He Loves Breathing' used to remember?
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It helps remember the main contents of the chest: Heart, Lungs, and Breathing structures (diaphragm and airways).
74. How does the chest cavity change during inhalation?
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During inhalation, the diaphragm contracts and flattens, the rib cage lifts up and outward, and the chest cavity expands, decreasing pressure and drawing air into the lungs.
75. What happens during exhalation?
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During exhalation, the diaphragm relaxes and rises, the rib cage lowers, and air is pushed out of the lungs.
76. Why is chest pain considered a critical symptom?
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Chest pain can indicate serious heart or lung issues, making it a critical symptom that requires medical attention.
77. What is the role of the chest in CPR?
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CPR involves pressing on the center of the chest to manually pump the heart when it has stopped beating.
78. What is the primary function of the stomach?
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To receive food from the esophagus, churn it with digestive juices, and break it down into a semi-liquid mixture called chyme before passing it to the small intestine.
79. Name the four regions of the stomach in order using the mnemonic CFBP.
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Cardia, Fundus, Body, Pylorus.
80. What is the role of the cardiac sphincter?
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It is the entry point from the esophagus; it opens to let food in and closes to prevent acid reflux into the esophagus.
81. What is the role of the pyloric sphincter?
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It is the exit to the small intestine; it controls the slow release of chyme (1–2 mL per minute).
82. What are rugae and what is their function?
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Rugae are folds in the stomach lining that flatten out to allow the stomach to expand from about 50 mL to 1–1.5 liters after a big meal.
83. What is chyme?
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The thick, semi-liquid mixture of partially digested food and gastric juice produced by the stomach.
84. What are the main components of gastric juice?
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Hydrochloric acid (HCl), pepsinogen (which becomes pepsin), and mucus.
85. What is the pH range of the stomach's acidic environment?
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pH 1.5–3.5.
86. Why is pepsin secreted as inactive pepsinogen?
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To prevent the stomach from digesting itself; pepsinogen is only activated into pepsin in the acidic environment of the stomach lumen.
87. What is the role of intrinsic factor?
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It is a protein produced by the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the small intestine.
88. How does the stomach protect itself from digesting itself?
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Through a thick mucus barrier rich in bicarbonate, rapid cell turnover (every few days), and secreting pepsin as inactive pepsinogen.
89. What happens when the cardiac sphincter weakens?
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Acid can reflux into the esophagus, causing heartburn.
90. What is the rate at which chyme is released into the small intestine?
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About 1–2 mL per minute.
91. What type of digestion do peristaltic waves in the stomach perform?
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Mechanical digestion—they churn and crush food, mixing it with gastric juice.
92. What are the three main parts of the human leg?
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Thigh, lower leg, and foot.
93. Which bone is the longest, heaviest, and strongest in the human body?
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The femur.
94. What is the primary weight-bearing bone of the lower leg?
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The tibia.
95. What is the function of the fibula?
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It provides support and stability, but does not bear much weight.
96. How many bones are in each leg?
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30 bones (including the foot).
97. What do the quadriceps do?
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They straighten the knee.
98. What do the hamstrings do?
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They bend the knee.
99. Which muscles help push off during walking and running?
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The calf muscles (gastrocnemius and soleus).
100. What is the function of the patella?
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It protects the knee and provides leverage for the quadriceps.
101. What is the walking cycle sequence?
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Heel strike, roll onto the ball, push off with toes.
102. How does the leg act during walking to conserve energy?
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It acts like an inverted pendulum.
103. What is the role of ligaments like the ACL?
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They stabilize the knee.
104. What is the role of cartilage (meniscus) in the knee?
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It cushions the knee joint.
105. True or False: The knee is a simple hinge joint that only bends back and forth.
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False. It also rotates slightly and absorbs shock.
106. How much of the load does the tibia carry in the lower leg?
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About 80%.
107. What is the largest joint in the human body?
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The knee joint, which connects the femur (thigh bone) to the tibia (shin bone).
108. What type of joint is the knee, and what movements does it primarily allow?
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The knee is a hinge joint that primarily allows flexion (bending) and extension (straightening). It also has a slight rotational component when bent.
109. What is the role of the patella (kneecap)?
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The patella protects the front of the knee and acts like a pulley, increasing the leverage of the quadriceps muscle to straighten the leg.
110. Name the two types of cartilage in the knee and their functions.
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Articular cartilage covers the bone ends to reduce friction, and the menisci (medial and lateral) are C-shaped pads that absorb shock and distribute weight.
111. What are the four major ligaments of the knee and their primary functions?
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ACL (anterior cruciate) and PCL (posterior cruciate) control forward/backward movement; MCL (medial collateral) and LCL (lateral collateral) prevent sideways bending.
112. What is the difference between ligaments and tendons?
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Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone.
113. Which muscles are primarily responsible for knee extension and flexion?
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The quadriceps muscle (front of thigh) extends the knee, while the hamstrings (back of thigh) flex the knee.
114. How much force does the knee experience during walking and running?
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About 1.5 times body weight during walking, and 4-5 times body weight during running.
115. What are common causes of knee pain besides broken bones?
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Cartilage wear (e.g., osteoarthritis), ligament sprains or tears, and tendinitis.
116. Why is the knee considered a 'team' of structures?
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Because bones, cartilage, ligaments, and tendons must work together to provide both mobility and stability; if any part fails, the whole joint is affected.
117. What is the function of the menisci?
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The menisci are C-shaped cartilage pads that distribute weight across the joint and absorb shock, preventing bone-on-bone grinding.
118. What happens to the patella during knee movement?
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The patella slides along a groove in the femur during flexion and extension, guiding smooth movement.
119. Why can pivoting movements be risky for the knee?
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Because the knee has a slight rotational component when bent, making sudden twisting movements (like in soccer) potentially harmful to ligaments, especially the ACL.
120. How many bones are in the human foot?
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26 bones, which is about one-quarter of all the bones in the human body.
121. What are the three regions of the foot?
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Hindfoot, midfoot, and forefoot.
122. Which bones make up the hindfoot?
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The talus and the calcaneus (heel bone).
123. What is the function of the midfoot?
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It forms the arch of the foot, acting as a natural shock absorber.
124. What are the phases of the gait cycle?
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Heel strike, midstance, and toe-off.
125. What does the plantar fascia do?
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It supports the arch and absorbs impact.
126. What is the role of the Achilles tendon?
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It transmits force from the calf muscles to the heel, enabling push-off during walking or running.
127. How do sprains and strains differ?
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Sprains affect ligaments (tissue connecting bones), while strains affect muscles or tendons.
128. Why are the soles of the feet so sensitive?
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They contain thousands of nerve endings that send feedback to the brain about the surface, aiding balance and posture.
129. What is the big toe called?
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The hallux.
130. How many phalanges do the other toes (not the big toe) have?
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Three each.
131. What is the largest bone in the foot?
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The calcaneus (heel bone).
132. What can ignoring foot pain lead to?
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Serious conditions like bunions, plantar fasciitis, or stress fractures.
133. How does foot health affect the rest of the body?
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Foot problems can alter gait, leading to knee, hip, or back pain.
134. What is the main function of the cornea?
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The cornea is the clear, fixed front window of the eye that provides most of the focusing power, bending light rays so they converge.
135. How does the iris control the amount of light entering the eye?
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The iris adjusts the size of the pupil: in bright light it makes the pupil smaller, and in dim light it makes the pupil larger.
136. What is accommodation?
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Accommodation is the process by which the lens changes shape to focus light from objects at different distances—thicker for near objects, flatter for far objects.
137. What are rods and cones, and what are their roles?
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Rods and cones are light-sensitive cells in the retina. Rods help with low-light vision and motion detection, while cones help with color and fine detail.
138. What is the blind spot and why does it exist?
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The blind spot is where the optic nerve leaves the eye; it has no light-sensitive cells, so you cannot see anything in that exact spot. The brain fills in the gap.
139. What is the role of the optic nerve?
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The optic nerve carries electrical signals from the retina to the brain, acting like a cable that transmits visual information.
140. How does the brain process the image received from the eye?
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The brain interprets the electrical signals, flips the image right-side up, and combines information from both eyes to give depth perception.
141. Why do glasses or contact lenses help people see clearly?
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They correct focus errors by adding an extra lens so that light lands exactly on the retina, producing a sharp image.
142. What are two practical ways to protect your eyes?
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Wearing sunglasses to protect from UV damage and taking breaks from screens to reduce eye strain.
143. Why is Vitamin A important for eye health?
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Vitamin A is essential for maintaining a healthy retina, especially for the rods that help with low-light vision.
144. How is the eye similar to a camera?
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Both have a lens to focus light, an aperture (iris/pupil) to control light entry, and a sensor (retina) to capture the image.
145. What is the main difference between the cornea and the lens?
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The cornea is fixed and provides most of the focusing power, while the lens changes shape to fine-tune focus for near and far objects.
146. What are the three main regions of the ear?
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Outer ear, middle ear, and inner ear.
147. What is the function of the pinna?
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The pinna collects and directs sound waves into the ear canal.
148. What are the three ossicles in order from the eardrum inward?
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Malleus (hammer), incus (anvil), and stapes (stirrup).
149. What structure separates the outer ear from the middle ear?
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The eardrum (tympanic membrane).
150. What is the role of the cochlea?
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The cochlea converts vibrations into nerve signals that are sent to the brain.
151. Why can loud sounds cause permanent hearing loss?
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Loud sounds can damage the hair cells in the cochlea, and these cells do not regenerate.
152. What is the function of the vestibular system?
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It detects head position and movement, providing the sense of balance.
153. How much does the eardrum move during normal conversation?
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About one nanometer, which is smaller than the width of a hair.
154. What is the path of sound from the outer ear to the brain?
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Pinna → ear canal → eardrum → ossicles → oval window → cochlea → auditory nerve → brain.
155. What is the main function of the ossicles?
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To amplify vibrations from the eardrum and transmit them to the inner ear.
156. What type of waves are sound waves?
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Mechanical vibrations that need a medium to travel through.
157. Which part of the ear contains the hair cells responsible for hearing?
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The cochlea in the inner ear.
158. What does the acronym FWMS stand for in relation to the nose's functions?
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Filter, Warm, Moisten, Smell.
159. What is the name of the tiny hairs inside the nostrils that trap large particles?
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Vibrissae.
160. What structure divides the nasal cavity into two halves?
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The nasal septum.
161. What is the role of cilia in the nasal cavity?
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Cilia are microscopic hair-like structures that wave in a coordinated motion to push mucus (with trapped particles) toward the throat for disposal.
162. Where are smell receptors located in the nose?
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In the olfactory epithelium, which is located high in the nasal cavity.
163. How does the nose warm the air you breathe?
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Blood vessels in the nasal cavity warm the air to near body temperature as it passes over the mucus membrane.
164. Why does food taste bland when you have a stuffy nose?
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Because smell is a major component of taste; a blocked nose prevents odor molecules from reaching the olfactory epithelium, reducing flavor perception.
165. What happens to the mucus that traps dust and germs in the nose?
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Cilia push the mucus to the throat, where it is swallowed and neutralized by stomach acid.
166. What is the role of the nose in voice production?
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The nasal cavity acts as a resonance chamber, affecting the quality and tone of your voice.
167. Why does your nose run in cold weather?
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The nose produces extra mucus to warm and moisten the air, which is a normal response, not a sign of illness.
168. What is the first line of defense in the respiratory system against inhaled pathogens?
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The nose, with its filtering, warming, and moistening functions.
169. How does the brain create a richer sense of smell?
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The brain combines signals from both nostrils, each of which has its own olfactory region.
170. What are the two main types of digestion that begin in the mouth?
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Mechanical digestion (chewing) and chemical digestion (enzymatic breakdown).
171. Which enzyme in saliva starts the digestion of starches?
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Salivary amylase.
172. What is the name of the soft, cohesive ball of food formed by the tongue and saliva?
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Bolus.
173. List the five basic tastes detected by taste buds.
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Sweet, salty, sour, bitter, and umami (savory).
174. What are the tiny bumps on the tongue that contain taste buds called?
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Papillae.
175. What role does the tongue play in swallowing?
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It pushes the bolus to the back of the mouth, triggering the swallowing reflex.
176. Why does a piece of bread start to taste sweet if you chew it for a while?
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Salivary amylase breaks down the starch into simpler sugars, which taste sweet.
177. What are the three types of teeth mentioned and their functions?
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Incisors for cutting, canines for tearing, and molars for grinding.
178. Besides water, what does saliva contain?
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Enzymes (like salivary amylase), mucus, electrolytes, and antibacterial agents (like lysozyme).
179. How does thorough chewing benefit the digestive system?
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It reduces the work the stomach has to do and increases the surface area of food for enzymes to act on.
180. What is the main function of the mouth in the digestive system?
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It is the entry point that performs both mechanical and chemical digestion of food.
181. What are the two main parts of a tooth?
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The crown (visible above the gum) and the root (anchored in the jawbone).
182. What is the hardest substance in the human body?
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Enamel, which covers the crown of the tooth.
183. What covers the root of a tooth?
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Cementum, a bone-like tissue that helps anchor the tooth via the periodontal ligament.
184. What is the function of dentin?
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Dentin makes up the bulk of the tooth, is harder than bone but softer than enamel, and contains tiny tubes that transmit sensation.
185. What does the pulp contain and what is its role?
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The pulp contains blood vessels, nerves, and connective tissue; it keeps the tooth alive and provides sensation.
186. What is pulpitis?
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Inflammation of the pulp, which causes severe toothache.
187. Why doesn't early tooth decay hurt?
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Because enamel has no nerves; pain begins when decay reaches the dentin or pulp.
188. How does fluoride help teeth?
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Fluoride makes enamel more resistant to acid and can help repair early decay.
189. What is a root canal?
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A procedure that removes dead pulp from the tooth to save it.
190. What is the periodontal ligament?
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It connects the cementum to the jawbone and acts as a shock absorber during chewing.
191. What causes tooth decay?
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Acids produced by bacteria feeding on sugars in the mouth attack enamel, creating cavities.
192. What happens when the pulp dies?
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Infection can spread to the root tip, causing an abscess.
193. What type of muscle makes up the tongue?
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Skeletal muscle.
194. Name the three main parts of the tongue.
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Tip (apex), body, and root.
195. What are the small bumps on the upper surface of the tongue called?
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Papillae.
196. List the five basic tastes.
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Sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and umami.
197. What is the tongue map myth?
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The false idea that specific tastes are localized to specific areas of the tongue. In reality, all areas can detect all tastes.
198. How many intrinsic and extrinsic muscles does the tongue have?
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Four intrinsic and four extrinsic (eight total).
199. What role do taste buds play in taste perception?
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They detect chemicals dissolved in saliva and trigger nerve signals to the brain.
200. Where do nerve signals from taste buds travel first?
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To the brainstem, then to the gustatory cortex.
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